On Tuesday, January 30, 2018 at 12:24:58 PM UTC-7, Chris L Peterson wrote:
On Tue, 30 Jan 2018 10:49:14 -0800 (PST), Quadibloc
wrote:

But yet the society at the time authorized the practice with its
laws.

Of course. Because these people had fewer rights, which was reflected
by the law.

No, the law *caused* them to have fewer legal rights. It did not
affect their human rights, it just meant the government was
responsible for violating their human rights in so doing.

Thus, they had equal rights, which the law criminally failed to
reflect.

John Savard