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Galaxies without dark matter halos?
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
In article ,
Phillip Helbig---remove CLOTHES to reply wrote: These are all limiting cases, so no problem. Great! That's all I've been trying to say. I hope we can ALL agree on the statement "if the redshift is large enough that the relativistic Doppler formula "should" be used, then the relativistic Doppler formula is completely inappropriate, in our universe". Absolutely. Moreover, I want to make it clear that I would only emphasize that the low-redshift limit of the cosmological redshift can be viewed as a Doppler shift when talking to a sufficiently sophisticated crowd. In particular, I wouldn't bring this fact up to anyone who didn't already clearly understand that you *can't* do this at high redshift. At some point, I'll try to write in detail about why I think it's pedagogically useful to think about the cosmological redshift as a Doppler shift in the low-redshift limit. I don't think I have the strength to embark on it now, though. -Ted -- [E-mail me at , as opposed to .] |
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
In article ,
Phillip Helbig---remove CLOTHES to reply wrote: These are all limiting cases, so no problem. Great! That's all I've been trying to say. I hope we can ALL agree on the statement "if the redshift is large enough that the relativistic Doppler formula "should" be used, then the relativistic Doppler formula is completely inappropriate, in our universe". Absolutely. Moreover, I want to make it clear that I would only emphasize that the low-redshift limit of the cosmological redshift can be viewed as a Doppler shift when talking to a sufficiently sophisticated crowd. In particular, I wouldn't bring this fact up to anyone who didn't already clearly understand that you *can't* do this at high redshift. At some point, I'll try to write in detail about why I think it's pedagogically useful to think about the cosmological redshift as a Doppler shift in the low-redshift limit. I don't think I have the strength to embark on it now, though. -Ted -- [E-mail me at , as opposed to .] |
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
In article ,
Phillip Helbig---remove CLOTHES to reply wrote: I've now finished reading the paper I mentioned a couple of posts back in this thread, astro-ph/0310808. The authors mention that the cosmological time dilation---(1+z), independent of the cosmological parameters---does not agree with the special-relativistic prediction EVEN TO FIRST ORDER (Eqs. 3--5). If so (and if not please point out their error), then special-case cosmological models such as the Milne model (i.e. lambda=0, Omega_matter=0; obviously a limiting case) cannot be expressed in the language of SR and agree with observations. Equation (4) is wrong. Either that, or the authors mean something quite different by it than what it seems to mean; I haven't read the paper carefully enough yet to know. Either way, the description following it is extremely misleading. Equation (4) certainly does not justify the conclusion that special relativity doesn't reproduce the cosmological time dilation to first order; it does reproduce it. When you take an FRW spacetime and approximate it as flat (which you can do to a good approximation at low redshift in any FRW spacetime, or exactly at arbitrary redshift in the Milne model), the velocity of a galaxy relative to you is not the peculiar velocity v_{pec}. It's (to first order, anyway) the peculiar velocity plus the Hubble velocity. So the special-relativistic prediction should not be \gamma_{SR} = (1-v_{pec}^2/c^2)^{-1/2}, as they say, but \gamma_{SR} = (1-v^2/c^2)^{-1/2}. This is a good example of the usefulness of the Milne model in error-checking. If you ever draw a conclusion that says that the Milne model isn't consistent with special relativity, then it's 100% guaranteed that you've made a mistake, because the Milne spacetime is *precisely* the same as the Minkowski spacetime of special relativity. -Ted -- [E-mail me at , as opposed to .] |
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
In article ,
Phillip Helbig---remove CLOTHES to reply wrote: I've now finished reading the paper I mentioned a couple of posts back in this thread, astro-ph/0310808. The authors mention that the cosmological time dilation---(1+z), independent of the cosmological parameters---does not agree with the special-relativistic prediction EVEN TO FIRST ORDER (Eqs. 3--5). If so (and if not please point out their error), then special-case cosmological models such as the Milne model (i.e. lambda=0, Omega_matter=0; obviously a limiting case) cannot be expressed in the language of SR and agree with observations. Equation (4) is wrong. Either that, or the authors mean something quite different by it than what it seems to mean; I haven't read the paper carefully enough yet to know. Either way, the description following it is extremely misleading. Equation (4) certainly does not justify the conclusion that special relativity doesn't reproduce the cosmological time dilation to first order; it does reproduce it. When you take an FRW spacetime and approximate it as flat (which you can do to a good approximation at low redshift in any FRW spacetime, or exactly at arbitrary redshift in the Milne model), the velocity of a galaxy relative to you is not the peculiar velocity v_{pec}. It's (to first order, anyway) the peculiar velocity plus the Hubble velocity. So the special-relativistic prediction should not be \gamma_{SR} = (1-v_{pec}^2/c^2)^{-1/2}, as they say, but \gamma_{SR} = (1-v^2/c^2)^{-1/2}. This is a good example of the usefulness of the Milne model in error-checking. If you ever draw a conclusion that says that the Milne model isn't consistent with special relativity, then it's 100% guaranteed that you've made a mistake, because the Milne spacetime is *precisely* the same as the Minkowski spacetime of special relativity. -Ted -- [E-mail me at , as opposed to .] |
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Cosmological redshift and Doppler shift
In article ,
Dag Oestvang wrote: But here we part company. That is, I believe that when Omega=1, any sensible interpretation of cosmological spectral shifts as Doppler shifts in flat space-time breaks down at all scales. To justify this view it is useful to consider the geometry of the Milne model in some detail. Since this is just the empty FRW model, space-time is flat. In fact, space-time is a piece of Minkowski space-time; namely the region inside the future light cone of some point in Minkowski space-time. Moreover, the hypersurfaces t=constant have hyperbolical geometry and the expansion of the comoving observers is exactly described as a field of 4-vectors in flat space-time. Now consider a model where Omega is non-zero, but small (as in example 3 above). In this case the hypersurfaces t=constant still have hyperbolic geometry. This means that for every point in space-time we can find a neighbourhood where the curvature of space matches the curvature of space in the vincinity of an event in the Milne model to the desired accuracy. Besides, in such an neighbourhood space-time can be considered flat to the desired accuracy. But this means that the expansion of the comoving observers can be described exactly as in the Milne model to the desired accuracy in the chosen neighbourhood; i.e. that V to a good approximation comes from a field of 4-vectors in flat space-time. But when Omega increases, the size of the neighbourhood where this description is appropriate, shrinks. That is, if one neglects an effect of curved space-time on V of 10%, say, then the size of the region (centered on the observer) where this limit holds shrinks when Omega increases. And when Omega increases towards 1 the size of this region shrinks to zero. I'm having a bit of trouble understanding what you're saying here. You seem to be saying this: Given a point in an Omega = 1 FRW spacetime and a level of desired accuracy epsilon, there is no finite-sized neighborhood of that point in which spacetime can be approximated as flat to an accuracy epsilon. Is that what you're saying? If so, then that completely explains our disagreement. This statement is wrong. In fact, this statement is precisely equivalent to An Omega = 1 FRW spacetime is not a Lorentzian manifold. Or, if we define the word "spacetime" to mean "Lorentzian manifold" (which is essentially what we do in general relativity), to An Omega = 1 FRW spacetime is not a spacetime. More or less by definition, a Lorentzian manifold is one that can be approximated arbitrarily well on sufficiently small scales as Minkowski spacetime. (Compare to Euclidean manifolds: a Euclidean manifold, by definition, can be approximated arbitrarily well on sufficiently small scales as flat.) In the epsilon-delta language beloved of mathematicians, a Lorentzian manifold must satisfy the condition that, at any point P, for any epsilon0, there is a delta0 such that spacetime deviates from Minkowski by less than epsilon in a neighborhood of radius delta of P. To put it more concretely, suppose you lived in an Omega = 1 FRW Universe at a time 14 billion years after the big bang. You draw a sphere of radius one millimeter. Do you really claim that spacetime deviates from flat by more than 10% within that sphere? I swear to you, on a stack of Misners, Thornes, and Wheelers, that it doesn't. (If it did, how did anyone ever manage to do experiments confirming special relativity?) If your above statement doesn't mean what I wrote above, then the only other meaning I can ascribe to it is this: Given a point in an Omega = 1 FRW spacetime, the constant-cosmic-time hypersurface through that point, and a level of desired accuracy epsilon, there is no finite-sized neighborhood of point P in which the hypersurface can be approximated as flat (Euclidean) to an accuracy epsilon. That's a slightly different statement, but it's still false. This statement is equivalent to the statement that the constant-cosmic-time hypersurface is not a Riemannian manifold, which it is. Incidentally, when approximating an FRW spacetime as flat in the neighborhood of a point, the surfaces of constant time do differ from surfaces of constant cosmic time at second order. That is, if T stands for the time coordinate in Riemann normal coordinates that best approximate spacetime as flat, and t stands for cosmic time, then T = t + O((r/R)^2), where the small quantity r/R is the ratio of the distance to the Hubble distance. That is, when Omega=1 space is no longer hyperbolic but flat. This means that we cannot find any event in the Milne model where the curvature of space matches the curvature of space in a Omega=1 model. Two points he 1. We can't exactly, but we *can* to any desired accuracy, in a small neighborhood. (Again, this is the definition of a Riemannian manifold.) 2. Worrying about whether we can approximate the constant-cosmic-time hypersurface to arbitrary accuracy is a bit of a red herring anyway. What matters is whether we can approximate *spacetime* to arbitrary accuracy. (It doesn't really make much difference, though, since we can do both.) -Ted -- [E-mail me at , as opposed to .] |
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