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Correlation between CMBR and Redshift Anisotropies.



 
 
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  #21  
Old July 15th 03, 02:17 AM
Henri Wilson
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

On 14 Jul 2003 12:38:34 -0700, (George G. Dishman)
wrote:

HW@..(Henri Wilson) wrote in message . ..
On 11 Jul 2003 20:10:19 -0700,
(George G. Dishman)
wrote:



The proof is trivial
see my demo
www.users.bigpond.com/hewn/contractions.exe if you don't believe
me.

If your 'proof' suggests they shouldn't, that proof
is wrong. A demonstration is only as good as the
assumptions it is based on and in the real world
clocks _are_ affected by motion.


A__________C__________D--2v

A__________C-v__________D--2v

The proof is trivial. It requires no assumptions, just plain logic.
If clock C is accelerated to velocity v, it ends up faster wrt A but slower wrt
D.

According to SR, its rate must both increase and decrease simultaneously. That
is obviously impossible IN THE PHYSICAL sense.

So no PHYSICAL change occurs in a clock as its speed changes.


That's a nice example to look at the difference between
SR and aether theories. In LET, the clock rate IS
physically changed by some interaction with the aether.
The paradox you present is resolved by the physical
contraction of materials that is also produced by motion
through the aether that causes speeds to be mis-measured
and the delay due to the motion of the light miscalculated.
It's all very messy really.


The changes COULD BE real if aether existed.


On the other hand, SR says that the clock is unaffected
by the motion in the sense that it produces the same
number of ticks per unit of proper time.


That is just another way of saying exactly what I am emphasizing here. Nothing
PHYSICALLY happens to clocks or rods due to movement.

The only way
to compare two clocks in relative motion is by using a
synchronising scheme as we have discussed before. The
assumption in your paradox is that simultaneity is
absolute while in SR it isn't.


In the case of orbiting GPS clocks, they are effectively at rest wrt the ground
clock since they return to the same point every exact orbit. Therefore, since
their real rates did NOT change due to velocity, their observed rate changes
can only be caused by gravity stress release.
Therefore the claimed exactness of the 'GR correction' for these clocks is
wrong since it relies on a non-existent 'velocity component'.


Conversely, in LET simultaneity is absolute (but
unmeasurable).

The effect, if any, can be observational only.

If no PHYSICAL change occurs in a GPS clock due to its movement, then the so
called 'GR correction' is wrong because it contains a velocity component (which
doesn't exist)


If you want to call it 'observational', that's your
choice. That aspect of GR is considered correct because
it accurately predicts the value of the 'observational'
effect.


But in the case of GPS clocks it DOES NOT because the velocit component is non
existent and because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.

As far as the precession of mercury is concerned, all i can say is that if a
theory is out by a factor of exactly two, one should go over the calculations
and not throw out the whole theory.

The Pound-Rebka experiment equally supports both GR and ballistic light theory.


There are no REAL Lorentz transforms.

The 'clocks in planes' experiments are all a joke.

They tend to be more demonstrations than experiments
but the corrections needed to GPS satellites are very
accurately measured and also confirm the result.


No they are not.


They are not accurately measured? The clocks are
monitored at the nanosecond level and have been for
years.


They are corrected empirically. If they don't give the right coordinates of a
known location they are simply software adjusted.
Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.



The angle subtended by distant stars is pretty small. Only a small diameter
gate would be needed on the moon to let through the same image that we see now.


Great if you are going to look at them for a long time
but if you want to measure very small speed differences
the gate will be open for a very short time hence few
photons. The great amateur photos you see in this group
(sci.astro) take many minutes of light colection, e.g.:


Not at all. We can see plenty of bright stars with our naked eyes.
PM's will pick up millisecond pulses of their light quite easily.


http://schmidling.netfirms.com/new.htm


Good pictures.


Going back to the original point though, you said the
speed of light one-way had not been measured.


It hasn't.

You can
consider any two-way measurement to be a one-way
measurement preceded by synchronising the clocks using
the outgoing light, and all other methods are equivalent.


That's Einstein's definition of clock synching, designed to make OWLS always
equal to TWLS. It doesn't match reality and is the cause of all the trouble.


You assume reality has it's own approved method for
synchronising clocks? That's what I meant in the first
post when I said "Before you can measure it, you have
to define it. ... I don't mean the practical
problems of synchronisation but what you are trying
to achieve." It's harder than it looks ;-)


Not at all. Clocks synched together should stay in absolute synch to within
their known drift tolerances no matter how they are moved along reasonably flat
gravity..


The one-way result must be the same as the two-way unless
there is anisotropy either in the light or some other
physical process that we could use as an alternative
method of clock sync. In that sense, the MMX would show
up any anisotropy and is effectively equivalent to a
one-way measurement, although it doesn't result in an
actual value for c of course. Have a think about it.


Of course. The MMX was designed to measure OWLS anisotropy. To any
non-indoctrinated person, its null result would suggest that either the theory
behind the experiment was wrong or that OWLS is locally source dependent.


Well certainly their theory was wrong since they expected
a non-zero value. However there are many alternatives as
well as Ritzian theory. LET and SR both predict a null
result so out of four candidates, the MMX eliminates only
one, the Galilean aether.


Even that is very suspect.


However, my point is rather subtle and I haven't put it
across very well. You might get something from it if you
give it some thought, perhaps ideas for a more practical
experiment.

There is scope for lesser effects but remember the fringe
shift is first order. If you want to construct a theory
with source dependency, I would suggest getting a
prediction that matches that as well as the binary star
evidence would need to be an early step.


If you have been following my posts you would know that my theory is based on
local source dependency, not long range.
Light speed is c relative to its source but settles down to a common speed as
it travels through space.


Yes, that's why I said "as well as".

(I haven't been following the thread but a couple
of your comments caught my attention.)


My theory is based on the notion that light speed is initially c relative it
source but changes as it travels. I say that the 'stuff that photon fields are
made of' constitutes a kind of medium which support light propagation itself.
Every ray of light contributes to this 'Haether', the density and local
turbulence of which all contribute to a local light speed. Because the density
of Haether is very rare in space, photons can be traveling at many different
speeds through it but tend to eventually equilibrate to the local c (in
light.secs or light minutes, for instance).


George



Henri Wilson.

Why is the creative output of one SRian the same as that produced by one million of them?

See my animations at:
http://www.users.bigpond.com/HeWn/index.htm
  #22  
Old July 16th 03, 09:26 PM
Henri Wilson
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

On 16 Jul 2003 06:51:35 -0700, (George G. Dishman)
wrote:

HW@..(Henri Wilson) wrote in message . ..
On 14 Jul 2003 12:38:34 -0700,
(George G. Dishman)
wrote:

HW@..(Henri Wilson) wrote in message . ..


A__________C__________D--2v

A__________C-v__________D--2v

The proof is trivial. It requires no assumptions, just plain logic.
If clock C is accelerated to velocity v, it ends up faster wrt A but slower wrt
D.

According to SR, its rate must both increase and decrease simultaneously. That
is obviously impossible IN THE PHYSICAL sense.

So no PHYSICAL change occurs in a clock as its speed changes.

That's a nice example to look at the difference between
SR and aether theories. In LET, the clock rate IS
physically changed by some interaction with the aether.
The paradox you present is resolved by the physical
contraction of materials that is also produced by motion
through the aether that causes speeds to be mis-measured
and the delay due to the motion of the light miscalculated.
It's all very messy really.


The changes COULD BE real if aether existed.


Exactly.

On the other hand, SR says that the clock is unaffected
by the motion in the sense that it produces the same
number of ticks per unit of proper time.


That is just another way of saying exactly what I am emphasizing here. Nothing
PHYSICALLY happens to clocks or rods due to movement.


Right, (though I have been a bit more careful in my wording).
That's one of the main differences between LET and SR.

The only way
to compare two clocks in relative motion is by using a
synchronising scheme as we have discussed before. The
assumption in your paradox is that simultaneity is
absolute while in SR it isn't.


In the case of orbiting GPS clocks, they are effectively at rest wrt the ground
clock since they return to the same point every exact orbit.


No they are still moving as they pass that point. For
example if you were stationary at that point in the
orbit, a signal from the satellite would still be
Doppler shifted as it approached and receded from you.

However, that doesn't alter my point that your 'proof'
is invalid because it makes the assumption of absolute
simultaneity.


You have already agreed that nothing physically changes due to speed.
Now you want to deny that fact.
I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this. If it did then all of the
claims of SR would be wrong.


Therefore, since
their real rates did NOT change due to velocity, their observed rate changes
can only be caused by gravity stress release.
Therefore the claimed exactness of the 'GR correction' for these clocks is
wrong since it relies on a non-existent 'velocity component'.

If you want to call it 'observational', that's your
choice. That aspect of GR is considered correct because
it accurately predicts the value of the 'observational'
effect.


But in the case of GPS clocks it DOES NOT because the velocit component is non
existent and


They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.


The need for the exact 'GR correction' has never been properly verified. The
required correction is roughly the same order but the clocks are corrected at
regular intervals anyway.
The operators of the GPS stress that it is not a test of GR.


because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.


IIRC, it is about 44 microseconds per day and they are
measured at the nanosecond level so the accuracy is
better than 'adequate' by four orders of magnitude.


There is a change in clock rate due to being in free fall. It just happens to
be close to the GR correction at GPS orbits. We never hear anything about the
'correction' required for other orbits do we..
Why would that be?


As far as the precession of mercury is concerned, all i can say is that if a
theory is out by a factor of exactly two, one should go over the calculations
and not throw out the whole theory.

The Pound-Rebka experiment equally supports both GR and ballistic light theory.


I don't want to extend the discussion to other
experiments at present, those I cited make my
point adequately.

... the corrections needed to GPS satellites are very
accurately measured and also confirm the result.

No they are not.

They are not accurately measured? The clocks are
monitored at the nanosecond level and have been for
years.


They are corrected empirically. If they don't give the right coordinates of a
known location they are simply software adjusted.


And the corrections are accurately recorded, those
are in effect the experimental results.

Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.


No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.


The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.


Not at all. We can see plenty of bright stars with our naked eyes.
PM's will pick up millisecond pulses of their light quite easily.


Well good luck getting it done. BTW, have you considered
using the Moon itself as your gate by occultation?


Hm. Maybe possible but I don't see a simple way to do it..
The exact distance from the earth would have to be known for each experiment.


You can
consider any two-way measurement to be a one-way
measurement preceded by synchronising the clocks using
the outgoing light, and all other methods are equivalent.

That's Einstein's definition of clock synching, designed to make OWLS always
equal to TWLS. It doesn't match reality and is the cause of all the trouble.

You assume reality has it's own approved method for
synchronising clocks? That's what I meant in the first
post when I said "Before you can measure it, you have
to define it. ... I don't mean the practical
problems of synchronisation but what you are trying
to achieve." It's harder than it looks ;-)


Not at all. Clocks synched together should stay in absolute synch to within
their known drift tolerances no matter how they are moved along reasonably flat
gravity..


You again assume that reality has something you
call "absolute synch". That need not be the case
and SR strongly suggests it isn't.


that's where it is wrong.
The above procedure defines absolute synch.

Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.


Of course. The MMX was designed to measure OWLS anisotropy. To any
non-indoctrinated person, its null result would suggest that either the theory
behind the experiment was wrong or that OWLS is locally source dependent.

Well certainly their theory was wrong since they expected
a non-zero value. However there are many alternatives as
well as Ritzian theory. LET and SR both predict a null
result so out of four candidates, the MMX eliminates only
one, the Galilean aether.


Even that is very suspect.


Sorry, I should have qualified that as the non-dragged
Galilean aether. Well spotted.

My theory is based on the notion that light speed is initially c relative it
source but changes as it travels. I say that the 'stuff that photon fields are
made of' constitutes a kind of medium which support light propagation itself.


That sounds like the classical EM field.


That's correct.

Whatever makes 'space devoid of all matter' different from 'space devoid of all
matter and EM' is what Haether is made of.


Every ray of light contributes to this 'Haether', the density and local
turbulence of which all contribute to a local light speed. Because the density
of Haether is very rare in space, photons can be traveling at many different
speeds through it but tend to eventually equilibrate to the local c (in
light.secs or light minutes, for instance).


Yes, I picked up that hence it explains the binary star
evidence but does not yet explain Sagnac. My "as well as"
meant you need to develop it to cover both aspects. I don't
see how you can do that without losing source dependence but
I'll leave that task to you.


I will look into that. I think the rotation of the mirrors will explain
everything.


George



Henri Wilson.

See my animations at:
http://www.users.bigpond.com/HeWn/index.htm
  #23  
Old July 17th 03, 08:37 PM
George Dishman
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.


"Henri Wilson" HW@.. wrote in message ...
On 16 Jul 2003 06:51:35 -0700, (George G. Dishman)
wrote:
HW@..(Henri Wilson) wrote in message . ..

The changes COULD BE real if aether existed.


Exactly.

On the other hand, SR says that the clock is unaffected
by the motion in the sense that it produces the same
number of ticks per unit of proper time.

That is just another way of saying exactly what I am emphasizing here. Nothing
PHYSICALLY happens to clocks or rods due to movement.


Right, (though I have been a bit more careful in my wording).
That's one of the main differences between LET and SR.

The only way
to compare two clocks in relative motion is by using a
synchronising scheme as we have discussed before. The
assumption in your paradox is that simultaneity is
absolute while in SR it isn't.

In the case of orbiting GPS clocks, they are effectively at rest wrt the ground
clock since they return to the same point every exact orbit.


No they are still moving as they pass that point. For
example if you were stationary at that point in the
orbit, a signal from the satellite would still be
Doppler shifted as it approached and receded from you.

However, that doesn't alter my point that your 'proof'
is invalid because it makes the assumption of absolute
simultaneity.


You have already agreed that nothing physically changes due to speed.


I worded it more carefully, but yes I agree.

Now you want to deny that fact.


You lost me here, I haven't changed anything I said.
Why do you think I have?

I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this.


To compare the rate of two clocks that to see if they
are equal, first synchronise a tick of one clock with
a tick of the other. If the next tick from the clocks
is also in sync, the clocks are ticking at the same
rate. The inequalities for slower or afster rates
follow. In your paradox the clocks are in relative
motion so even if the are co-located for a first
reference tick, they will all be separated for the
next tick, and if you have spatially separated clocks,
you have to take simultaneity into account.

I can suggest an analogy if it would help but some
people don't like such 'tricks'.

If it did then all of the
claims of SR would be wrong.

....
But in the case of GPS clocks it DOES NOT because the velocit component is non
existent and


They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.


The need for the exact 'GR correction' has never been properly verified. The
required correction is roughly the same order but the clocks are corrected at
regular intervals anyway.
The operators of the GPS stress that it is not a test of GR.


The point remains, the clocks are moving as they pass
that point in orbit so there is a velocity component.
The clocks are built with a correction factor to
compensate for the altered rate in orbit and adjustments
are small in comparison to that offset. The adjustments
are not just because of GR, the system is sensitive enough
to need to be corrected for the gravitational influence of
large masses such as mountain ranges so it might be
difficult to use it experimentally to get an accurate
confirmation, but it is easily enough to confirm the
effect occurs beyond any shadow of a doubt.

because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.


IIRC, it is about 44 microseconds per day and they are
measured at the nanosecond level so the accuracy is
better than 'adequate' by four orders of magnitude.


There is a change in clock rate due to being in free fall. It just happens to
be close to the GR correction at GPS orbits.


Exactly, GR predicts the total effect and it is a single
theory, not separate effects. What other theories predict
any gravitational effect?

We never hear anything about the
'correction' required for other orbits do we..
Why would that be?


Because there are few satellites in other orbits with
atomic clocks on board and sophisticated methods for
comparing sync. GLONASS is about 1000km lower and there
may be papers on that but I haven't looked for them.

Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.


No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.


The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.


Right, so why why did you suggest only sync mattered
since "'Time' cancels out .."

Not at all. We can see plenty of bright stars with our naked eyes.
PM's will pick up millisecond pulses of their light quite easily.


Well good luck getting it done. BTW, have you considered
using the Moon itself as your gate by occultation?


Hm. Maybe possible but I don't see a simple way to do it..
The exact distance from the earth would have to be known for each experiment.


No you need two detectors at different locations on the
Earth so that the same crater edge say occults two stars
at the same instant on the Moon. It's just a thought, but
it would have the advantage of transferring the problems
to the Earth end and means you don't need any equipment
on the Moon.

You assume reality has it's own approved method for
synchronising clocks? That's what I meant in the first
post when I said "Before you can measure it, you have
to define it. ... I don't mean the practical
problems of synchronisation but what you are trying
to achieve." It's harder than it looks ;-)

Not at all. Clocks synched together should stay in absolute synch to within
their known drift tolerances no matter how they are moved along reasonably flat
gravity..


You again assume that reality has something you
call "absolute synch". That need not be the case
and SR strongly suggests it isn't.


that's where it is wrong.
The above procedure defines absolute synch.

Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.


Again, you assume nature "should" behave the way you want
it to. In fact they always maintain sync in the same way
that Einstein's method produces.

Every ray of light contributes to this 'Haether', the density and local
turbulence of which all contribute to a local light speed. Because the density
of Haether is very rare in space, photons can be traveling at many different
speeds through it but tend to eventually equilibrate to the local c (in
light.secs or light minutes, for instance).


Yes, I picked up that hence it explains the binary star
evidence but does not yet explain Sagnac. My "as well as"
meant you need to develop it to cover both aspects. I don't
see how you can do that without losing source dependence but
I'll leave that task to you.


I will look into that. I think the rotation of the mirrors will explain
everything.


I have seen that argued before but never seen anyone
make it work. When you know the path length and speed,
the time follows. The only attempts I have seen have
involved displacement of the point of reflection on
the mirror and I think that usually gives a second
order effect, certainly not enough to predict what
is observed. I'll be very interested to see how you
tackle it.

George



  #24  
Old July 17th 03, 11:36 PM
Henri Wilson
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

On Thu, 17 Jul 2003 20:37:14 +0100, "George Dishman"
wrote:


"Henri Wilson" HW@.. wrote in message ...
On 16 Jul 2003 06:51:35 -0700, (George G. Dishman)
wrote:


No they are still moving as they pass that point. For
example if you were stationary at that point in the
orbit, a signal from the satellite would still be
Doppler shifted as it approached and receded from you.

However, that doesn't alter my point that your 'proof'
is invalid because it makes the assumption of absolute
simultaneity.


You have already agreed that nothing physically changes due to speed.


I worded it more carefully, but yes I agree.

Now you want to deny that fact.


You lost me here, I haven't changed anything I said.
Why do you think I have?


This nonsense about simultaneity. If an observer takes into account the travel
time of information to reach him, the problem disappears.


I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this.


To compare the rate of two clocks that to see if they
are equal, first synchronise a tick of one clock with
a tick of the other. If the next tick from the clocks
is also in sync, the clocks are ticking at the same
rate. The inequalities for slower or afster rates
follow. In your paradox the clocks are in relative
motion so even if the are co-located for a first
reference tick, they will all be separated for the
next tick, and if you have spatially separated clocks,
you have to take simultaneity into account.


If you correct for information travel time using the DOPPLER expression the
problem disappears.

A moving rod will appear to have a different length even though we know it has
not physically changed. There is no need to invoke SR. All one needs is the
linear doppler term to get the right answer.

Another way is to use a 'Henri Wilson reference frame'.
My frames can be used anywhere in flat gravity. They contain an infinite grid
of fixed 'perfect' clocks, all presynched and all subsequently moved carefully
into position. All readings are done via these clocks and the information later
relayed to me. That method provides me with instantaneous readings throughout
parts of the universe.


I can suggest an analogy if it would help but some
people don't like such 'tricks'.

If it did then all of the
claims of SR would be wrong.

...
But in the case of GPS clocks it DOES NOT because the velocit component is non
existent and

They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.


The need for the exact 'GR correction' has never been properly verified. The
required correction is roughly the same order but the clocks are corrected at
regular intervals anyway.
The operators of the GPS stress that it is not a test of GR.


The point remains, the clocks are moving as they pass
that point in orbit so there is a velocity component.


That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect. You have agreed that the clocks have
not PHYSICALLY changed due to their movement.

The clocks are built with a correction factor to
compensate for the altered rate in orbit and adjustments
are small in comparison to that offset. The adjustments
are not just because of GR, the system is sensitive enough
to need to be corrected for the gravitational influence of
large masses such as mountain ranges so it might be
difficult to use it experimentally to get an accurate
confirmation, but it is easily enough to confirm the
effect occurs beyond any shadow of a doubt.


The clocks change rates because they are relieved of gravitational compression.


because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.

IIRC, it is about 44 microseconds per day and they are
measured at the nanosecond level so the accuracy is
better than 'adequate' by four orders of magnitude.


There is a change in clock rate due to being in free fall. It just happens to
be close to the GR correction at GPS orbits.


Exactly, GR predicts the total effect and it is a single
theory, not separate effects. What other theories predict
any gravitational effect?


The fact that the required correction for GPS orbits happens to be close to the
GR prediction is purely coincidental. It even has to includes the non-existent
velocity component to make it anywhere near right.

What about other orbits anyway?

I say a clock in free fall will always shift by the same amount.


We never hear anything about the
'correction' required for other orbits do we..
Why would that be?


Because there are few satellites in other orbits with
atomic clocks on board and sophisticated methods for
comparing sync. GLONASS is about 1000km lower and there
may be papers on that but I haven't looked for them.


It does not use a GR correction.
The system works perfectly well without it.


Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.

No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.


The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.


Right, so why why did you suggest only sync mattered
since "'Time' cancels out .."


It is vital that all the orbiting clocks are in close synch with each other.


Not at all. We can see plenty of bright stars with our naked eyes.
PM's will pick up millisecond pulses of their light quite easily.

Well good luck getting it done. BTW, have you considered
using the Moon itself as your gate by occultation?


Hm. Maybe possible but I don't see a simple way to do it..
The exact distance from the earth would have to be known for each experiment.


No you need two detectors at different locations on the
Earth so that the same crater edge say occults two stars
at the same instant on the Moon. It's just a thought, but
it would have the advantage of transferring the problems
to the Earth end and means you don't need any equipment
on the Moon.


Yes that might be a distinct possibility. We would still have to know the exact
distances but that would be relatively easy.
Actually, if we could find two suitable sources which were exactly aligned
parallel to a crater rim, the experiment could be carried out at one location
on Earth. It would involve monitoring the intensity decay curves of the two
images.


You assume reality has it's own approved method for
synchronising clocks? That's what I meant in the first
post when I said "Before you can measure it, you have
to define it. ... I don't mean the practical
problems of synchronisation but what you are trying
to achieve." It's harder than it looks ;-)

Not at all. Clocks synched together should stay in absolute synch to within
their known drift tolerances no matter how they are moved along reasonably flat
gravity..

You again assume that reality has something you
call "absolute synch". That need not be the case
and SR strongly suggests it isn't.


that's where it is wrong.
The above procedure defines absolute synch.

Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.


Again, you assume nature "should" behave the way you want
it to. In fact they always maintain sync in the same way
that Einstein's method produces.


NO THEY DO NOT.

Einstein would resynch them when they were in position.
There is no 'checking' and correcting in my method. The clocks are simply
ASSUMED to have remained in synch. They are brought together regularly for
comparison and then corrected if necessary.



Every ray of light contributes to this 'Haether', the density and local
turbulence of which all contribute to a local light speed. Because the density
of Haether is very rare in space, photons can be traveling at many different
speeds through it but tend to eventually equilibrate to the local c (in
light.secs or light minutes, for instance).

Yes, I picked up that hence it explains the binary star
evidence but does not yet explain Sagnac. My "as well as"
meant you need to develop it to cover both aspects. I don't
see how you can do that without losing source dependence but
I'll leave that task to you.


I will look into that. I think the rotation of the mirrors will explain
everything.


I have seen that argued before but never seen anyone
make it work. When you know the path length and speed,
the time follows. The only attempts I have seen have
involved displacement of the point of reflection on
the mirror and I think that usually gives a second
order effect, certainly not enough to predict what
is observed. I'll be very interested to see how you
tackle it.


If you consider a rotating, four 45deg mirror configuration, the actual source
velocity doesn't play any part. It is the peripheral velocity of the first
mirror that would contribute to the first c+v effect. The analysis becomes a
bit messy after that because all the angles change slightly during the light
travel time. I am pretty sure that the fringe shift would occur even with
source dependency.


George




Henri Wilson.

See my animations at:
http://www.users.bigpond.com/HeWn/index.htm
  #25  
Old July 18th 03, 09:27 AM
''
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

Henri Wilson (HW@..), in article , wrote:

They tend to be more demonstrations than experiments
but the corrections needed to GPS satellites are very
accurately measured and also confirm the result.


No they are not. The GPS is not designed to be a verification of GR.


It would hardly be the first time that data had more than one
interpretation, or that an implementation of one branch of science led
to data for another.
  #26  
Old July 18th 03, 01:02 PM
Sam Wormley
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

'' wrote:

Henri Wilson (HW@..), in article , wrote:

No they are not. The GPS is not designed to be a verification of GR.


It would hardly be the first time that data had more than one
interpretation, or that an implementation of one branch of science led
to data for another.


Ref: Hartle, "Gravity: An Introduction to Einstein's General
Relativity", Addison Wesley (2003)

The difference between rates at which signals are emitted and received
at two locations with different gravitational potentials is minute in
laboratory circumstances. Yet take these differences into account is
crucial for the operation of the Global Positioning System (GPS) used
every day. If the relativistic effects of time dilation and the
gravitational effects are not properly taken into account. the system
would fail after only a fraction of an hour.

The GPS consists of a constellation of satellites, each in a half
sidereal day orbit about the Earth in a total of six orbital planes.
Each satellite carries accurate atomic clocks that keep proper time on
a satellite to accuracies of a few parts in 10^13 over a few weeks.
Corrections uploaded several times a day from the ground enable
accurate time to be kept over longer periods. The details of operation
of the system are complex, see for example the nearly 800 pages of
detail in Parkinson and Spilker (1996), but the basic idea is easily
explained in an idealization of the real situation.

Imagine an inertial frame in which the center of the Earth is
approximately at rest for the time it takes a signal to propagate from
a satellite to the ground. Periodically each satellite sends out
microwave signals encoded with the time and spacial location of
emission in the coordinates of the inertial frame. An observer that
receives a signal an interval of time later can calculate his or her
distance from the satellite by multiplying that time interval by the
speed of light c. By using the signal from three satellites the
observer's position in space can be narrowed down to the possible
intersection points of three spheres. By using four satellites, the
observer's position in both space and time can be fixed, even without
the observer possessing an accurate clock, giving a complete location
in spacetime. Signals from additional satellites reduce uncertainty
further.

Proper time on the satellite clocks has to be corrected to give the
time of the inertial frame for at least two reasons: time dilation of
special relativity and the effects of the Earth's gravitational field.
to understand this, suppose a GPS satellite emits signals at a constant
rate as measured by its clock. Suppose further that these are monitored
by a distant observer at rest in the inertial frame. A clock of this
observer, at rest and far from any source of gravitational effects,
measures the time of the inertial frame. The signals will be received
at a slower rate than they were emitted. Time dilation of the moving
satellite clock is one reason. But another is the difference between
the rates of emission an reception because the satellite is lower in
the gravitational potential of the Earth than the distant observer. Two
corrections must therefore be applied to rate of satellite time to get
the time in the inertial frame.


These corrections are tiny by everyday standards, but a nanosecond is a
significant time in GPS operation. A signal from a satellite travels 30
cm in a nanosecond. To meet the announced 2-m accuracy for military
applications of the GPS, times and time differences must be known to
accuracies of approximately 6 ns. Keeping time to that accuracy is not
a problem for contemporary atomic clocks, but at these accuracies, both
time dilation and the gravitational redshift become important for GPS
operation.

The actual GPS does not employ an inertial frame whose time is defined
by clocks at infinity; rather it uses a frame rotating with the Earth
whose time is defined by clocks on its surface. The rates of the
satellite clocks must be corrected downward to keep the time of that
frame. Further corrections are needed for the relativistic Doppler
effect, the relativity of simultaneity, the Earth's rotation, the
asphericity of the Earth's gravitational potential, the time delays
from the index of refration of the Earth's ionosphere, satellite clock
errors, etc.
  #27  
Old July 18th 03, 05:15 PM
George Dishman
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.


"Henri Wilson" HW@.. wrote in message ...
On Thu, 17 Jul 2003 20:37:14 +0100, "George Dishman"
wrote:


"Henri Wilson" HW@.. wrote in message ...
On 16 Jul 2003 06:51:35 -0700, (George G. Dishman)
wrote:


No they are still moving as they pass that point. For
example if you were stationary at that point in the
orbit, a signal from the satellite would still be
Doppler shifted as it approached and receded from you.

However, that doesn't alter my point that your 'proof'
is invalid because it makes the assumption of absolute
simultaneity.

You have already agreed that nothing physically changes due to speed.


I worded it more carefully, but yes I agree.

Now you want to deny that fact.


You lost me here, I haven't changed anything I said.
Why do you think I have?


This nonsense about simultaneity. If an observer takes into account the travel
time of information to reach him, the problem disappears.


It doesn't, relativity of simultaneity refers to what
constitutes simultaneous events regardless of the method
of measurement. Anyway, that is not denying that there
is no physical change to the clock, I haven't changed
my view on anything.

I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this.


To compare the rate of two clocks that to see if they
are equal, first synchronise a tick of one clock with
a tick of the other. If the next tick from the clocks
is also in sync, the clocks are ticking at the same
rate. The inequalities for slower or afster rates
follow. In your paradox the clocks are in relative
motion so even if the are co-located for a first
reference tick, they will all be separated for the
next tick, and if you have spatially separated clocks,
you have to take simultaneity into account.


If you correct for information travel time using the DOPPLER expression the
problem disappears.


You said you didn't see why simultaneity was relevant
so I hope you see the role it plays now.

In SR, simultaneity is not absolute. Whether Doppler
is relevant in your theory is not relevant. You cannot
disprove any theory if you start with an assumption that
conflicts with the theory. Your proof assumes absolute
simultaneity hence is invalid for SR.

A moving rod will appear to have a different length even though we know it has
not physically changed. There is no need to invoke SR. All one needs is the
linear doppler term to get the right answer.

Another way is to use a 'Henri Wilson reference frame'.
My frames can be used anywhere in flat gravity. They contain an infinite grid
of fixed 'perfect' clocks, all presynched and all subsequently moved carefully
into position. All readings are done via these clocks and the information later
relayed to me. That method provides me with instantaneous readings throughout
parts of the universe.


Fine, but none of that is relevant to SR so your proof
is still invalid. If you want to prove SR is internally
inconsistent, which is what you attempted above, you
must limit yourself to the rules of SR.

But in the case of GPS clocks it DOES NOT because the velocit component is non
existent and

They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.

The need for the exact 'GR correction' has never been properly verified. The
required correction is roughly the same order but the clocks are corrected at
regular intervals anyway.
The operators of the GPS stress that it is not a test of GR.


The point remains, the clocks are moving as they pass
that point in orbit so there is a velocity component.


That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect.


Then you admit the GPS clocks are affected by their motion?

The Doppler shift is not the same as the Newtonian version.
In particular the velocity component is not zero when the
motion is perpendicular to the line of sight.

You have agreed that the clocks have
not PHYSICALLY changed due to their movement.


I have said they tick at the same rate per unit of
proper time. In my view that means they are not
physically changed but "physically changed" is
not a well defined term and some people would
disagree with me even though they would agree with
my more explicit statement, hence my care with the
wording.

The clocks are built with a correction factor to
compensate for the altered rate in orbit and adjustments
are small in comparison to that offset. The adjustments
are not just because of GR, the system is sensitive enough
to need to be corrected for the gravitational influence of
large masses such as mountain ranges so it might be
difficult to use it experimentally to get an accurate
confirmation, but it is easily enough to confirm the
effect occurs beyond any shadow of a doubt.


The clocks change rates because they are relieved of gravitational compression.


In my opinion they are not physically affected. The rate
change comes from projecting from the world line of the
clock onto a coordinate axis.

because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.

IIRC, it is about 44 microseconds per day and they are
measured at the nanosecond level so the accuracy is
better than 'adequate' by four orders of magnitude.

There is a change in clock rate due to being in free fall. It just happens to
be close to the GR correction at GPS orbits.


Exactly, GR predicts the total effect and it is a single
theory, not separate effects. What other theories predict
any gravitational effect?


The fact that the required correction for GPS orbits happens to be close to the
GR prediction is purely coincidental. It even has to includes the non-existent
velocity component to make it anywhere near right.


We already discussed that:
They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.


You also said:
That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect.

which could not exist if the velocity was "non-existent".

Please don't repeat errors after they have been corrected,
it makes for a very boring and repetitive conversation.

What about other orbits anyway?

I say a clock in free fall will always shift by the same amount.

We never hear anything about the
'correction' required for other orbits do we..
Why would that be?


Because there are few satellites in other orbits with
atomic clocks on board and sophisticated methods for
comparing sync. GLONASS is about 1000km lower and there
may be papers on that but I haven't looked for them.


It does not use a GR correction.


Really, I haven't found anything on the subject, can
you tell me where you found this information please.

The system works perfectly well without it.


Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.

No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.

The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.


Right, so why why did you suggest only sync mattered
since "'Time' cancels out .."


It is vital that all the orbiting clocks are in close synch with each other.


Of course, but it is also vital that they are accurately synchronised
to Earth time in a manner that allows users to use them as a time
reference. Most atomic clocks come with a GPS option for example.

Hm. Maybe possible but I don't see a simple way to do it..
The exact distance from the earth would have to be known for each experiment.


No you need two detectors at different locations on the
Earth so that the same crater edge say occults two stars
at the same instant on the Moon. It's just a thought, but
it would have the advantage of transferring the problems
to the Earth end and means you don't need any equipment
on the Moon.


Yes that might be a distinct possibility. We would still have to know the exact
distances but that would be relatively easy.
Actually, if we could find two suitable sources which were exactly aligned
parallel to a crater rim, the experiment could be carried out at one location
on Earth. It would involve monitoring the intensity decay curves of the two
images.


Exactly, and all that could be done with standard amateur
astronomy kit. You see, I really was trying to be helpful,
not just criticise your idea.

You assume reality has it's own approved method for
synchronising clocks? That's what I meant in the first
post when I said "Before you can measure it, you have
to define it. ... I don't mean the practical
problems of synchronisation but what you are trying
to achieve." It's harder than it looks ;-)

Not at all. Clocks synched together should stay in absolute synch to within
their known drift tolerances no matter how they are moved along reasonably flat
gravity..

You again assume that reality has something you
call "absolute synch". That need not be the case
and SR strongly suggests it isn't.

that's where it is wrong.
The above procedure defines absolute synch.

Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.


Again, you assume nature "should" behave the way you want
it to. In fact they always maintain sync in the same way
that Einstein's method produces.


NO THEY DO NOT.


From the Hafele-Keating experiment to the BBC Christmas Lectures
a few years ago, every test I know of has been consistent with
YES THEY DO and outside the error bars of NO THEY DO NOT. Cite
your experimental evidence if you disagree.

Einstein would resynch them when they were in position.
There is no 'checking' and correcting in my method. The clocks are simply
ASSUMED to have remained in synch. They are brought together regularly for
comparison and then corrected if necessary.

snip
I will look into [Sagnac]. I think the rotation of the mirrors will explain
everything.


I have seen that argued before but never seen anyone
make it work. When you know the path length and speed,
the time follows. The only attempts I have seen have
involved displacement of the point of reflection on
the mirror and I think that usually gives a second
order effect, certainly not enough to predict what
is observed. I'll be very interested to see how you
tackle it.


If you consider a rotating, four 45deg mirror configuration, the actual source
velocity doesn't play any part. It is the peripheral velocity of the first
mirror that would contribute to the first c+v effect. The analysis becomes a
bit messy after that because all the angles change slightly during the light
travel time.


They do but the speed of the light leaving each mirror is
c+v and the setup is symmetrical about the centre of each
light path so the light approaches the next mirror at c+v.
Since the mirror is moving at v, it approaches at a relative
speed of c. It leaves at c relative to the mirror hence c+v
again and so on. If the entire path is covered at c+v, there
should be no shift. The change in angles is something to
look at but the symmetry argument tends to cancel them out,
a greater launch angle corresponds to a greater arrival
angle at the next mirror.

I am pretty sure that the fringe shift would occur even with
source dependency.


As I say, superficially it all cancels and there should be no
shift. You could be right but I know it will be difficult to
find an explanation.

George.


  #28  
Old July 18th 03, 11:24 PM
Henri Wilson
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

On Fri, 18 Jul 2003 17:15:04 +0100, "George Dishman"
wrote:


"Henri Wilson" HW@.. wrote in message ...
On Thu, 17 Jul 2003 20:37:14 +0100, "George Dishman"
wrote:



You lost me here, I haven't changed anything I said.
Why do you think I have?


This nonsense about simultaneity. If an observer takes into account the travel
time of information to reach him, the problem disappears.


It doesn't, relativity of simultaneity refers to what
constitutes simultaneous events regardless of the method
of measurement. Anyway, that is not denying that there
is no physical change to the clock, I haven't changed
my view on anything.

I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this.

To compare the rate of two clocks that to see if they
are equal, first synchronise a tick of one clock with
a tick of the other. If the next tick from the clocks
is also in sync, the clocks are ticking at the same
rate. The inequalities for slower or afster rates
follow. In your paradox the clocks are in relative
motion so even if the are co-located for a first
reference tick, they will all be separated for the
next tick, and if you have spatially separated clocks,
you have to take simultaneity into account.


If you correct for information travel time using the DOPPLER expression the
problem disappears.


You said you didn't see why simultaneity was relevant
so I hope you see the role it plays now.

In SR, simultaneity is not absolute. Whether Doppler
is relevant in your theory is not relevant. You cannot
disprove any theory if you start with an assumption that
conflicts with the theory. Your proof assumes absolute
simultaneity hence is invalid for SR.


Of course there is absolute simultaneity. It's just that one cannot establish
it if one uses light for communication.

However if two clcoks ar synchedthen moved apart in flat gravity, then they can
be assumed to be in absolute synch and, when at rest wrt each other, will
establish absolute simultaneity at their locations.


A moving rod will appear to have a different length even though we know it has
not physically changed. There is no need to invoke SR. All one needs is the
linear doppler term to get the right answer.

Another way is to use a 'Henri Wilson reference frame'.
My frames can be used anywhere in flat gravity. They contain an infinite grid
of fixed 'perfect' clocks, all presynched and all subsequently moved carefully
into position. All readings are done via these clocks and the information later
relayed to me. That method provides me with instantaneous readings throughout
parts of the universe.


Fine, but none of that is relevant to SR so your proof
is still invalid. If you want to prove SR is internally
inconsistent, which is what you attempted above, you
must limit yourself to the rules of SR.


SR is a complete hoax.
It relies on the misapprehension that falling raindrops take longer too reach
the ground when you view them through your car window because they appear to
move diagonally.



The point remains, the clocks are moving as they pass
that point in orbit so there is a velocity component.


That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect.


Then you admit the GPS clocks are affected by their motion?


No. The clocks are not physically affected by their motion. Their readings have
to be adjusted for transverse doppler when observed from Earth, that is all.


The Doppler shift is not the same as the Newtonian version.
In particular the velocity component is not zero when the
motion is perpendicular to the line of sight.


That is the SRian view.
The Newtonian correction is quite easy to calculate.


You have agreed that the clocks have
not PHYSICALLY changed due to their movement.


I have said they tick at the same rate per unit of
proper time. In my view that means they are not
physically changed but "physically changed" is
not a well defined term and some people would
disagree with me even though they would agree with
my more explicit statement, hence my care with the
wording.


The SRian use of the word 'proper' is just a way around admitting that time
rate of change is absolute.


The clocks are built with a correction factor to
compensate for the altered rate in orbit and adjustments
are small in comparison to that offset. The adjustments
are not just because of GR, the system is sensitive enough
to need to be corrected for the gravitational influence of
large masses such as mountain ranges so it might be
difficult to use it experimentally to get an accurate
confirmation, but it is easily enough to confirm the
effect occurs beyond any shadow of a doubt.


The clocks change rates because they are relieved of gravitational compression.


In my opinion they are not physically affected. The rate
change comes from projecting from the world line of the
clock onto a coordinate axis.


But they clearly emit an increased number of ticks per orbit when they are up
there compared with before launch.
That means they have increased their physical ticking rates.
It has nothing to do with 'time changes' or fancy world lines.


because the accuracy of measurement has never been adequate for
checking whether it is right or wrong. The GPS correction amounts to only 4cm
per orbit. The clocks are regularly corrected empirically anyway.

IIRC, it is about 44 microseconds per day and they are
measured at the nanosecond level so the accuracy is
better than 'adequate' by four orders of magnitude.

There is a change in clock rate due to being in free fall. It just happens to
be close to the GR correction at GPS orbits.

Exactly, GR predicts the total effect and it is a single
theory, not separate effects. What other theories predict
any gravitational effect?


The fact that the required correction for GPS orbits happens to be close to the
GR prediction is purely coincidental. It even has to includes the non-existent
velocity component to make it anywhere near right.


We already discussed that:
They are still moving whether they return to the
same point or not. Regardless, the values from
the GR calculations when done in the manner
prescribed by GR match the values observed.
That is all that matters. GR says you treat the
satellites as moving in the inertial frame so
that is what you have to do, it is part of the
theory.


You also said:
That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect.

which could not exist if the velocity was "non-existent".

Please don't repeat errors after they have been corrected,
it makes for a very boring and repetitive conversation.

What about other orbits anyway?

I say a clock in free fall will always shift by the same amount.

We never hear anything about the
'correction' required for other orbits do we..
Why would that be?

Because there are few satellites in other orbits with
atomic clocks on board and sophisticated methods for
comparing sync. GLONASS is about 1000km lower and there
may be papers on that but I haven't looked for them.


It does not use a GR correction.


Really, I haven't found anything on the subject, can
you tell me where you found this information please.


I thought it was pretty common knowledge. I will try to find a reference.


The system works perfectly well without it.


Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.

No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.

The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.

Right, so why why did you suggest only sync mattered
since "'Time' cancels out .."


It is vital that all the orbiting clocks are in close synch with each other.


Of course, but it is also vital that they are accurately synchronised
to Earth time in a manner that allows users to use them as a time
reference. Most atomic clocks come with a GPS option for example.


Their signals are simply 'software corrected' for current drift.


Hm. Maybe possible but I don't see a simple way to do it..
The exact distance from the earth would have to be known for each experiment.

No you need two detectors at different locations on the
Earth so that the same crater edge say occults two stars
at the same instant on the Moon. It's just a thought, but
it would have the advantage of transferring the problems
to the Earth end and means you don't need any equipment
on the Moon.


Yes that might be a distinct possibility. We would still have to know the exact
distances but that would be relatively easy.
Actually, if we could find two suitable sources which were exactly aligned
parallel to a crater rim, the experiment could be carried out at one location
on Earth. It would involve monitoring the intensity decay curves of the two
images.


Exactly, and all that could be done with standard amateur
astronomy kit. You see, I really was trying to be helpful,
not just criticise your idea.


You have been helpful and I appreciate that.
Your idea is probably just about as feasible as Romer's light speed
measurements.


Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.

Again, you assume nature "should" behave the way you want
it to. In fact they always maintain sync in the same way
that Einstein's method produces.


NO THEY DO NOT.


From the Hafele-Keating experiment to the BBC Christmas Lectures
a few years ago, every test I know of has been consistent with
YES THEY DO and outside the error bars of NO THEY DO NOT. Cite
your experimental evidence if you disagree.

Einstein would resynch them when they were in position.
There is no 'checking' and correcting in my method. The clocks are simply
ASSUMED to have remained in synch. They are brought together regularly for
comparison and then corrected if necessary.

snip
I will look into [Sagnac]. I think the rotation of the mirrors will explain
everything.

I have seen that argued before but never seen anyone
make it work. When you know the path length and speed,
the time follows. The only attempts I have seen have
involved displacement of the point of reflection on
the mirror and I think that usually gives a second
order effect, certainly not enough to predict what
is observed. I'll be very interested to see how you
tackle it.


If you consider a rotating, four 45deg mirror configuration, the actual source
velocity doesn't play any part. It is the peripheral velocity of the first
mirror that would contribute to the first c+v effect. The analysis becomes a
bit messy after that because all the angles change slightly during the light
travel time.


They do but the speed of the light leaving each mirror is
c+v and the setup is symmetrical about the centre of each
light path so the light approaches the next mirror at c+v.
Since the mirror is moving at v, it approaches at a relative
speed of c. It leaves at c relative to the mirror hence c+v
again and so on. If the entire path is covered at c+v, there
should be no shift. The change in angles is something to
look at but the symmetry argument tends to cancel them out,
a greater launch angle corresponds to a greater arrival
angle at the next mirror.


But the light doesn't arrive at each mirror at c because the mirrors constantly
change angle so that their velocity is always slightly less that v when the
light reaches them.
The small angular variation also causes each reflected beam to be be slightly
off 90deg wrt its arrival direction. The thing is very messy.


I am pretty sure that the fringe shift would occur even with
source dependency.


As I say, superficially it all cancels and there should be no
shift. You could be right but I know it will be difficult to
find an explanation.

George.



Henri Wilson.

See my animations at:
http://www.users.bigpond.com/HeWn/index.htm
  #29  
Old July 19th 03, 10:23 AM
George Dishman
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

Henri, I'd like to trim down these posts so I'll press
you for answers on a couple of bits.

I don't see why simultaneity should enter into this.

To compare the rate of two clocks that to see if they
are equal, first synchronise a tick of one clock with
a tick of the other. If the next tick from the clocks
is also in sync, the clocks are ticking at the same
rate. The inequalities for slower or afster rates
follow. In your paradox the clocks are in relative
motion so even if the are co-located for a first
reference tick, they will all be separated for the
next tick, and if you have spatially separated clocks,
you have to take simultaneity into account.

....
You said you didn't see why simultaneity was relevant
so I hope you see the role it plays now.


Have I explained why it is involved?

In SR, simultaneity is not absolute. Whether Doppler
is relevant in your theory is not relevant. You cannot
disprove any theory if you start with an assumption that
conflicts with the theory. Your proof assumes absolute
simultaneity hence is invalid for SR.


Of course there is absolute simultaneity.


That is your opinion, I disagree.

It's just that one cannot establish
it if one uses light for communication.

However if two clcoks ar synchedthen moved apart in flat gravity, then they can
be assumed to be in absolute synch


No, we do not make such assumptions. You have to demonstrate
it by experiment or observation and that evidence supports SR.

and, when at rest wrt each other, will
establish absolute simultaneity at their locations.


Agreed, they would _if_ clocks behaved as you wish.

Fine, but none of that is relevant to SR so your proof
is still invalid. If you want to prove SR is internally
inconsistent, which is what you attempted above, you
must limit yourself to the rules of SR.


SR is a complete hoax.


Again that is your opinion, but your proof is _still_
invalid because it requires an assumption that is contrary
to what it tries to disprove. Can you confirm you understand
this point so we can move on please.

It relies on the misapprehension that falling raindrops take longer too reach
the ground when you view them through your car window because they appear to
move diagonally.


I won't be visiting you then. It must be dangerous living
where the rain falls at the speed of light!

The point remains, the clocks are moving as they pass
that point in orbit so there is a velocity component.

That is a purely Newtonian doppler effect.


Then you admit the GPS clocks are affected by their motion?


No. The clocks are not physically affected by their motion. Their readings have
to be adjusted for transverse doppler when observed from Earth, that is all.

The Doppler shift is not the same as the Newtonian version.
In particular the velocity component is not zero when the
motion is perpendicular to the line of sight.


That is the SRian view.
The Newtonian correction is quite easy to calculate.


Really? Please show me how you get a transverse Doppler
in Newtonian theory.

You have agreed that the clocks have
not PHYSICALLY changed due to their movement.


I have said they tick at the same rate per unit of
proper time. In my view that means they are not
physically changed but "physically changed" is
not a well defined term and some people would
disagree with me even though they would agree with
my more explicit statement, hence my care with the
wording.


The SRian use of the word 'proper' is just a way around admitting that time
rate of change is absolute.


It is a definition of a measurable quantity. Whether clocks
change rate or not is determined by actual measurements.

In my opinion they are not physically affected. The rate
change comes from projecting from the world line of the
clock onto a coordinate axis.


But they clearly emit an increased number of ticks per orbit when they are up
there compared with before launch.


When the ticks are projected onto a ground-based coordinate
axis (i.e. where they are measured), the rate is indeed higher.
When you then use GR to find their rate against the clock's
world lines, we observe that the rate per unit of proper time
is unchanged. Hence I sy the clock is not physically affected
in that sense. In the sense that the ground-measured rate for
a clock in orbit differs from the rate for the same clock prior
to launch, it is physically affected. That is why I am careful
about wording my answer, "physically affected" can be ambiguous.

That means they have increased their physical ticking rates.
It has nothing to do with 'time changes' or fancy world lines.


snip
[GLONASS] does not use a GR correction.


Really, I haven't found anything on the subject, can
you tell me where you found this information please.


I thought it was pretty common knowledge. I will try to find a reference.


If it were true, it would be headline news. Even the
slightest deviation from GR could be the key to a quantum
theory of gravity. If you can find your source I would
be fascinated (astonished!).

Anyway, the only criterion for GPS accuracy is that all orbiting clocks are in
exact synch. 'Time' cancels out in the triangulation method used.

No, the GPS system is used to distribute accurate time
around the world as well as location information. The
clocks have to be kept in sync with the ground clocks
as well.

The daily correction is simply included in their signals.
it's a simply software operation.

Right, so why why did you suggest only sync mattered
since "'Time' cancels out .."

It is vital that all the orbiting clocks are in close synch with each other.


Of course, but it is also vital that they are accurately synchronised
to Earth time in a manner that allows users to use them as a time
reference. Most atomic clocks come with a GPS option for example.


Their signals are simply 'software corrected' for current drift.


The clocks are built with the GR correction in place and
the clock performance is much better than even the smaller
velocity-related component. As long as the mean of those
corrections is less than the uncertainty in the clock rate,
that gives the confirmation of GR.

Exactly, and all that could be done with standard amateur
astronomy kit. You see, I really was trying to be helpful,
not just criticise your idea.


You have been helpful and I appreciate that.
Your idea is probably just about as feasible as Romer's light speed
measurements.


Thanks.

Synch two clocks together, move them apart and they should remain in absolute
synch.

Again, you assume nature "should" behave the way you want
it to. In fact they always maintain sync in the same way
that Einstein's method produces.

NO THEY DO NOT.


From the Hafele-Keating experiment to the BBC Christmas Lectures
a few years ago, every test I know of has been consistent with
YES THEY DO and outside the error bars of NO THEY DO NOT. Cite
your experimental evidence if you disagree.


Again, can you cite anything on this?

If you consider a rotating, four 45deg mirror configuration, the actual source
velocity doesn't play any part. It is the peripheral velocity of the first
mirror that would contribute to the first c+v effect. The analysis becomes a
bit messy after that because all the angles change slightly during the light
travel time.


They do but the speed of the light leaving each mirror is
c+v and the setup is symmetrical about the centre of each
light path so the light approaches the next mirror at c+v.
Since the mirror is moving at v, it approaches at a relative
speed of c. It leaves at c relative to the mirror hence c+v
again and so on. If the entire path is covered at c+v, there
should be no shift. The change in angles is something to
look at but the symmetry argument tends to cancel them out,
a greater launch angle corresponds to a greater arrival
angle at the next mirror.


But the light doesn't arrive at each mirror at c because the mirrors constantly
change angle so that their velocity is always slightly less that v when the
light reaches them.


In the co-rotating frame, the light arrives at c and the
mirror is not rotating hence there should be no fringe
shift.

In the lab frame it is not that simple, the speed would
be c+v at the centre of the beam, less than c+v on one
side and more than c+v on the other because the mirror
is rotating so you have to consider constructing
wavefronts or some equivalent method for predicting the
refelected angle and speed but the result must be the
same as in the co-rotating frame analysis since it is
just another way of predicting the same experiment.

The small angular variation also causes each reflected beam to be be slightly
off 90deg wrt its arrival direction.


Right, in the co-rotating frame the angles are reduced
from 90 degrees because the light paths appear bent. In
the lab frame, the angles are reduced because the path
is no longer square.

However, the change of angles is only needed so that the
beam hits the next mirror. It does not affect the speed
since, in both frames, there is still symmetry about the
normal to the mirror at the point of reflection. The
conclusion remains that there should be no fringe shift
from either of the effects you mention.

The thing is very messy.


It needs care certainly, but the symmetry makes it
tractable and the result from what I have seen is
always a prediction of no fringe shift, contrary to
what we observe.

George


  #30  
Old July 19th 03, 01:27 PM
Minor Crank
external usenet poster
 
Posts: n/a
Default Dependence of the speed of light on the speed of the source.

"George Dishman" wrote in message
...

If it were true, it would be headline news. Even the
slightest deviation from GR could be the key to a quantum
theory of gravity. If you can find your source I would
be fascinated (astonished!).


To Henri:

George's statement is a -very- important point. We -know- that GR must fail
at some point, because GR and QM are incompatible. Also, GR predicts things
(like singularities) that many people are uncomfortable with, and which they
hope might "go away" in a more complete theory.

GR is not a religion. Tremendous effort is going on in attempts to discover
where GR fails. It hasn't so far, but not for lack of trying. What do you
know about Gravity Probe B, or STEP? How about tests of the inverse square
law at small distance?

Minor Crank


 




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