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A question about the bending of light.



 
 
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Old May 1st 06, 11:46 PM posted to sci.space.policy,sci.philosophy.tech,sci.astro,rec.org.mensa
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Default A question about the bending of light.

$$ [CRANK] wrote:
In article .com,
"Randy Poe" writes: BernardZ wrote:

-=-
"Golden Boar" wrote in message
oups.com...
Why is the amount of bending of light twice the value
predicted by Newton's [ *No* ..(n - 1). ] laws?
Is this because photons are gravitaionally attracted
twice as much as massive particles?

Newton never predicted bending light.

Actually Newton was a bit unsure of this. If light was a
particle it would bend under gravity but if it was wave,
it would not.


Only if it is a particle with nonzero [ h*fL/c^2 ] mass.

No, not quite so. Note that the deflection of particle in
(Newtonian) gravity field is independent of mass.


$$ NO ..NO, Dimwit.!! Say "independent of [MAGNiTUDE of] mass".!!
$$ What a GR-cracked-pot ..at least Bilge shows a few "smarts".!!
$$
$$ STOOPiNG to a SORT of "semantic trickery" ..so TOM ROBERTsy.!!
$$ STOOPiNG to a SORT of "semantic trickery" ..just like Bilge.!!
$$ [i.e Bilge's mental GR-CONE doesN'T get BiGGER, either way].!!
$$ [His GR CONE doesN'T get BiGGER asMEASURED along it's axis].!!
$$
$$ Newtonian GRAViTY is independent of the *MAGNiTUDE* of mass.!!
$$
$$ Sincerely, Brian [B A STUCKLESS iNSPECTiON and SUPERViSiON].!!

Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool,
| chances are he is doing just the same"
$$ A question about the bending of light.


 




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