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#91
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Max Keon wrote:
Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote: Max Keon wrote: If every wave over the period of several days which was observed through the telescope to have been added to the pulse counter with the transmitter clock, has not been received at the tower top checkpoint, it's going to be damn hard to explain where they went. They went nowhere. They simply are still on their way to the top. That is absolutely absurd. This may sound absurd to you, but it is the way the universe works. Maybe in your universe, but not in mine. I thought we live in the same. And now stop obfuscating, finally read up on how the Pound-Rebka experiment was *actually* done, and address the results. The zero origin universe is very specific in setting the parameters for all existence, And what on earth is that supposed to mean? in contrast with the big bang universe which is still waiting for someone to tell it how it works. How what works? The universe? Thanks, we know that already quite well. [snip] You will also agree that there are no limitations on how long a continuous wavetrain can be? An unbroken wavetrain one light year in length can be generated in an atomic clock, and that signal can be amplified so that it can be transmitted to the top of the tower and beyond. It is clearly no different to the wavetrain generated in the iron sample. Agreed, but relativity teaches us that both length and time are relative concepts. Different observers will measure different lengths and different times. It also teaches us to believe in some things that are counter-intuitive. Indeed. Physics has teached us for several hundred years now. E.g. it has teached us the counter-intuitive fact that the Earth goes round the sun. But that's certainly not an uncommon practice. Somewhere along the line a wave of truth must start rolling across this planet because bull**** can't be piled up indefinitely. Is this an insinuation that relativity is bull****? [snip] No, they are not in limbo. You are just confusing yourself by calculating the length of the missing wave train, which does not have any physical meaning. What has a physical meaning is that the clock on the ground is running slow according to the clock on the satellite. This is an observed phenomenon, which is corrected for in the GPS satellite. You may argue against this as much as you like, but it does not change the way nature or GPS works. I've never argued against the fact that clocks run at different rates at different altitudes. But I do reject any theory which predicts that a wavetrain length will undergo permanent change when it's climbing out of a gravity well. Address the results of the Pound-Rebka experiment. After you finally managed to read up on how it was actually done. The conclusion drawn from the Pound and Rebka experiment could have gone either way, No, it couldn't. Finally read up on how it was actually done, please. but the natural choice was to go along with the theory of the day. The atomic clock scenario falsifies the chosen conclusion. It does do nothing like that. The clock at the tower base is seen to be running slower according to the time rate in the clock at the tower top, because it *is* running slower. You are still ignoring the gravitational redshift, I see. When the wavetrain transmitted from the tower base clock passes by the top clock, it will pass by at exactly the same frequency as that indicated on the LCD attached to and driven by the tower base clock. That's not difficult to falsify. It was falsified by Pound and Rebka. Finally read up on how the experiment was actually done, please. Bye, Bjoern |
#92
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Max Keon wrote:
Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote: If it's not a blackbody spectrum, how do you want to define the temperature? The temperature of an era can be represented by the wavelength of the most copiously generated E/M transmission at the time. The evolution of the universe can be plotted along the scale of increasing temperatures for the most copiously emitted wavelengths. This is wrong on several accounts. Firstly it has been pointed out to you several times already that the universe is cooling down, not heating up, and this is supported by observations of molecules at high redshifts. Your claim that this is due to that the background becomes cooler because the local universe is heating up does not make any sense, because we can measure the temperature of the microwave black body radiation both locally, in our galaxy, and at high redshifts using molecules in our galaxy, and at high redshifts, respectively, and they show that the universe is at least not heating up. There's no point trying to understand a consequence of the zero origin universe while you're standing in the big bang universe. We are simply pointing out what the *observations* say. Not what the theory says. Address the observations, please. It's just not possible. The observed redshift per distance is the conclusive proof that the universe was colder in the past. Why on earth do you think so? In the zero origin universe, there is no expansion. Explain the fact that the surface brightness of galaxies decreases with (1+z)^4. Explain the fact that supernova light curve width increase with (1+z). Explain the fact that the temperature of the CMBR in distant galaxies is measured to be higher by a factor (1+z). Etc. The higher the redshift the colder the universe. Unsupported assertion. [snip] http://www.ozemail.com.au/~mkeon/~cyclwav.jpg The purple graph is the usual CMBR plot, but the frequency scale is non linear, so it appears to be reversed. The black graph is plotted according to emissive power per wavelength, where the wavelength scale is linear. It's still exactly the same scale of course. Multipliers are used to align the peaks of the power spectrums. Can you see the difference now? Can you see that they are both equally valid plots of a 2.73 K blackbody radiator? You are not supposed to plot a curve which shows power per wave length together with one that show power per frequency, and it is not possible to fix it just by re-scaling the wave length axis. If anyone has introduced a fiddle factor in this discussion it is you. I concede that the wavelength plots shown for the two curves are not directly comparable in the way that I chose to compare them, but there are no restrictions whatever on what scale I choose for either or both graph plots. Huh? Please read Ulf's argument again. Try to understand it this time. If I'm plotting spectral energy density per wavelength I obviously can't use the same formula applicable to emissive power per wavelength. The two plots are describing different views of a blacbody radiator, that's all. Yes, and it makes no sense at all to show them in one and the same plot. One is from the outside looking in, while the other is from the inside looking out, if I can put is so bluntly. Care to explain that "blunt" statement further? Inside and outside of *what*? Bye, Bjoern |
#93
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Ulf Torkelsson wrote:
Max Keon wrote: Because the dipole is taking the same picture of the cosmic background as the monopole, by default it has the same spectrum as the monopole. Apart from its power spectrum falling a long way short of the all sky spectrum, the only difference is that the entire spectrum has been slightly red or blue shifted depending on which way the dipole is being measured. What I can't understand is why the following dipole graph, which was plotted with the raw dipole data set, shows such an enormous blue shift. The peak of its spectrum has been shifted to that of a 3.4 K radiator. That represents a substantial velocity relative to the cosmic background, doesn't it? It has been pointed out to you before that you are mixing up curves showing intensity per wave length and intensity per frequency. The intensity per wavelength curve has a maximum at wave length lambda_m, and the intensity per frequency curve has a maximum at the frequency, nu_m, but these two are *not* related through, lambda_m = c/nu_m, and therefore you cannot compare the two curves simply by re-scaling the x-axis. The entire shapes of the two curves are different as I pointed in a previous posting. I can plot spectral energy density per frequency, and I can plot spectral energy density per wavelength. Swapping between frequency and wavelength doesn't alter anything because the two properties of the single entity are inseparable. Are you suggesting that the frequency component and the wavelength are different, that they cover different ranges of the spectrum? I'm not too sure just what you are suggesting, but I can certainly swap between frequency and wavelength on the graph scale and not change anything, not even the graph's appearance. The zero mark for the scale goes to infinity, on one end or the other, depending on how the scale is set, but so what? Does that invalidate the graph plot? The same applies if I plot a curve using emissive power per wavelength or emissive power per frequency to describe the output from a normal blackbody enclosure. If the x-axis is re-scaled, nothing changes except the numbers on the scale. But I can't directly compare between a normal blackbody plot and a spectral energy density plot, as you say. Even so, the conversion between emissive power per wavelength and spectral energy density is done with very simple and logical multipliers. Why do you suggest that such a move is taboo? For a specific blackbody temperature enclosure, the square root of pi times any wavelength in that spectrum will find the equivalent wavelength on a spectral energy density plot, while the square root of the power attributed to that blackbody wavelength identifies the power attribute for the spectral energy density wavelength relative to the rest of that spectrum. The entire power spectrum of the blackbody enclosure plot can be elevated to the scale of the spectral energy density realm and can, using appropriate multipliers now be directly compared. The logic that I used to plot the CMBR curve for the zero origin universe resulted in a curve which resembled a curve generated from a normal blackbody enclosure because it was plotted assuming that the eternal distance between now and the origin was a linear measurement, which it clearly is not. It was difficult enough to explain that reasoning without the added complexity of trying to explain how the CMBR would arrive from a solid angle back in time to the origin. Multiplying each wavelength of the zero origin spectrum by pi^.5 and changing the power attribute of each by power^.5 to reset the curve shape to align with the spectral energy density requirement, produces a curve comparison which is much the same as the original curve comparison, as should be expected. http://www.ozemail.com.au/~mkeon/cmb5-05y.jpg is a graph plotted accordingly. I can of course plot the same graph using an x-scale where frequency is linear, and *it will still be just as valid as any other CMBR graph plot*. ----- Max Keon |
#94
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Max Keon wrote:
Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: Because the dipole is taking the same picture of the cosmic background as the monopole, by default it has the same spectrum as the monopole. Apart from its power spectrum falling a long way short of the all sky spectrum, the only difference is that the entire spectrum has been slightly red or blue shifted depending on which way the dipole is being measured. What I can't understand is why the following dipole graph, which was plotted with the raw dipole data set, shows such an enormous blue shift. The peak of its spectrum has been shifted to that of a 3.4 K radiator. That represents a substantial velocity relative to the cosmic background, doesn't it? It has been pointed out to you before that you are mixing up curves showing intensity per wave length and intensity per frequency. The intensity per wavelength curve has a maximum at wave length lambda_m, and the intensity per frequency curve has a maximum at the frequency, nu_m, but these two are *not* related through, lambda_m = c/nu_m, and therefore you cannot compare the two curves simply by re-scaling the x-axis. The entire shapes of the two curves are different as I pointed in a previous posting. I can plot spectral energy density per frequency, and I can plot spectral energy density per wavelength. Swapping between frequency and wavelength doesn't alter anything because the two properties of the single entity are inseparable. Are you suggesting that the frequency component and the wavelength are different, that they cover different ranges of the spectrum? I'm not too sure just what you are suggesting, but I can certainly swap between frequency and wavelength on the graph scale and not change anything, not even the graph's appearance. I have been going through this in detail before, but let me repeat this. Consider the enerrgy density per wavelength, rho_lambda with the unit J/m3/m, and energy density per frequency unit, rho_nu with the unit J/m3/Hz. Now we look at a narrow wavelength band, d lambda, and the corresponding narrow frequency band d nu The energy density in this band can be written as rho_lambda d lambda or rho_nu d nu. These two quantities must obviously be the same, so we have rho_lambda d_lambda = rho_nu d_nu Therefore rho_nu = rho_lambda d lambda/d nu, so assume that you want to plot rho_lambda in the same diagram as you plot rho_nu, then not only will you have to re-calculate lambda using nu = c/lambda, but you also have to rescale rho_lambda by multiplying with d lambda/d nu. If you fail to do this you will find that the two curves have different shapes and in particular that their maxima do not coincide. From your figures it looks like that you have failed to carry out the latter operation. The zero mark for the scale goes to infinity, on one end or the other, depending on how the scale is set, but so what? Does that invalidate the graph plot? The same applies if I plot a curve using emissive power per wavelength or emissive power per frequency to describe the output from a normal blackbody enclosure. If the x-axis is re-scaled, nothing changes except the numbers on the scale. But I can't directly compare between a normal blackbody plot and a spectral energy density plot, as you say. Even so, the conversion between emissive power per wavelength and spectral energy density is done with very simple and logical multipliers. Why do you suggest that such a move is taboo? For a specific blackbody temperature enclosure, the square root of pi times any wavelength in that spectrum will find the equivalent wavelength on a spectral energy density plot, while the square root of the power attributed to that blackbody wavelength identifies the power attribute for the spectral energy density wavelength relative to the rest of that spectrum. What are you talking about? The square root of a power is not a power. They do not have the same units! The entire power spectrum of the blackbody enclosure plot can be elevated to the scale of the spectral energy density realm and can, using appropriate multipliers now be directly compared. It sounds to me like that you are now mixing up the spectrum of black body radiation, with the Fourier analys of the fluctuations of the microwave background fluctuations. The power spectrum you can derive in the latter case does not have anything to do with the usual spectrum of the black body radiation. The logic that I used to plot the CMBR curve for the zero origin universe resulted in a curve which resembled a curve generated from a normal blackbody enclosure because it was plotted assuming that the eternal distance between now and the origin was a linear measurement, which it clearly is not. What is "the eternal distance"? It was difficult enough to explain that reasoning without the added complexity of trying to explain how the CMBR would arrive from a solid angle back in time to the origin. Multiplying each wavelength of the zero origin spectrum by pi^.5 and changing the power attribute of each by power^.5 to reset the curve shape to align with the spectral energy density requirement, produces a curve comparison which is much the same as the original curve comparison, as should be expected. I am afraid that this does not make any physical sense. We have a saying in Swedish, which very freely could be translated as "What is vaguely expressed comes from vague thoughts". I think this very much applies to this thread. Ulf Torkelsson |
#95
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Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote:
Max Keon wrote: Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: ------ ------ You will also agree that there are no limitations on how long a continuous wavetrain can be? An unbroken wavetrain one light year in length can be generated in an atomic clock, and that signal can be amplified so that it can be transmitted to the top of the tower and beyond. It is clearly no different to the wavetrain generated in the iron sample. Agreed, but relativity teaches us that both length and time are relative concepts. Different observers will measure different lengths and different times. It also teaches us to believe in some things that are counter-intuitive. Indeed. Physics has teached us for several hundred years now. E.g. it has teached us the counter-intuitive fact that the Earth goes round the sun. But that's certainly not an uncommon practice. Somewhere along the line a wave of truth must start rolling across this planet because bull**** can't be piled up indefinitely. Is this an insinuation that relativity is bull****? Anything counter-intuitive is a potential blob on the pile. If the shoe fits ?? ------ ------ I've never argued against the fact that clocks run at different rates at different altitudes. But I do reject any theory which predicts that a wavetrain length will undergo permanent change when it's climbing out of a gravity well. Address the results of the Pound-Rebka experiment. After you finally managed to read up on how it was actually done. The conclusion drawn from the Pound and Rebka experiment could have gone either way, No, it couldn't. Finally read up on how it was actually done, please. but the natural choice was to go along with the theory of the day. The atomic clock scenario falsifies the chosen conclusion. It does do nothing like that. The clock at the tower base is seen to be running slower according to the time rate in the clock at the tower top, because it *is* running slower. You are still ignoring the gravitational redshift, I see. The gravitational redshift will show up in the clock rate difference between the tower base clock and the tower top clock. From the top of the tower, the tick rate of the tower base clock is proven in the direct visual reading of numbers displayed on the screen of the LCD attached to the base clock, which were generated from that clock's tick rate. The propagation of the image of the numbers shown on the screen cannot be redshifted to a different set of numbers enroute to the top clock. The base clock is seen to be running slower compared to the top clock. The clocks were of course previously synchronized at the tower top. Now replace the clocks with two radioactive iron samples which generate identical frequencies when compared adjacent anywhere. Placing one sample at the tower base and the other at the tower top will set up exactly the same frequency difference that was present between the two Cs clocks. Or perhaps the frequencies generated in the iron samples are still identical and the lesser frequency is only due to energy lost from the photons as they climb from the gravity well up to the tower top. That would certainly find a spot on the aforementioned pile, wouldn't it? When the wavetrain transmitted from the tower base clock passes by the top clock, it will pass by at exactly the same frequency as that indicated on the LCD attached to and driven by the tower base clock. That's not difficult to falsify. It was falsified by Pound and Rebka. Finally read up on how the experiment was actually done, please. You seem to be purposely missing the point. ----- Max Keon |
#96
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Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote:
Max Keon wrote: Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: The temperature of an era can be represented by the wavelength of the most copiously generated E/M transmission at the time. The evolution of the universe can be plotted along the scale of increasing temperatures for the most copiously emitted wavelengths. This is wrong on several accounts. Firstly it has been pointed out to you several times already that the universe is cooling down, not heating up, and this is supported by observations of molecules at high redshifts. Your claim that this is due to that the background becomes cooler because the local universe is heating up does not make any sense, because we can measure the temperature of the microwave black body radiation both locally, in our galaxy, and at high redshifts using molecules in our galaxy, and at high redshifts, respectively, and they show that the universe is at least not heating up. There's no point trying to understand a consequence of the zero origin universe while you're standing in the big bang universe. We are simply pointing out what the *observations* say. Not what the theory says. Address the observations, please. It's just not possible. The observed redshift per distance is the conclusive proof that the universe was colder in the past. Why on earth do you think so? In the zero origin universe, there is no expansion. Explain the fact that the surface brightness of galaxies decreases with (1+z)^4. From your viewpoint in the big bang universe, the initial temperature of the visible universe was 4000 degrees K, and due to the expansion of space in the 13.7 billion years from just after the bang up until now, the 4000 K temperature has finally reduced to almost zero. So, what you are telling me is that the 4000 K temperature should, in the local universe, be 4000^.25 = 8 K. However, from my viewpoint in the zero origin universe, the temperature of the era (which you assume to be a meager 13.77E+9 light years in the past) is exactly as it now appears. *It was colder back then*. Explain the fact that supernova light curve width increase with (1+z). The only way that can happen in your expanding universe is for the light curve width to remain constant (from your viewpoint in the present) for every supernova event since the big bang. Which is a bit surprising to me in the zero origin universe because it sets specific localized evolution parameters before the explosion can occur, regardless of where the rest of the universe is on the evolutionary scale. The supernova would certainly demolish the gravity well from whence it came, and reset that local evolutionary balance back with the rest of the universe. Explain the fact that the temperature of the CMBR in distant galaxies is measured to be higher by a factor (1+z). Etc. You apply a redshift component that maximizes right on the big bang and then reduce it at a linear rate to the present, and claim to have found proof of a cooling universe????? The higher the redshift the colder the universe. Unsupported assertion. Only if one chooses to live in a big bang universe. It is clearly observed in the zero origin universe. ----- Max Keon |
#97
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Max Keon wrote:
The gravitational redshift will show up in the clock rate difference between the tower base clock and the tower top clock. From the top of the tower, the tick rate of the tower base clock is proven in the direct visual reading of numbers displayed on the screen of the LCD attached to the base clock, which were generated from that clock's tick rate. The propagation of the image of the numbers shown on the screen cannot be redshifted to a different set of numbers enroute to the top clock. The base clock is seen to be running slower compared to the top clock. The clocks were of course previously synchronized at the tower top. Now replace the clocks with two radioactive iron samples which generate identical frequencies when compared adjacent anywhere. Yes, we agree on this, and furthermore the paragraph above even tells us that this frequency will always be the same. Placing one sample at the tower base and the other at the tower top will set up exactly the same frequency difference that was present between the two Cs clocks. I hope we all agree on that this is correct. Or perhaps the frequencies generated in the iron samples are still identical and the lesser frequency is only due to energy lost from the photons as they climb from the gravity well up to the tower top. But this is inaccurate, though not wrong. We can take the frequency as measured at the bottom of the tower and the frequency as measured at the top of the tower, and plug them both into Plancks law to calculate the energy of the photons. We then find that the energy difference is the same as the change in the potential energy for a particle of mass m = E/c^2. This is a nice example of the internal consistency of physics. It does not matter which way we calculate a certain physical effect, we will always get the same answer. If that was not the case we would have a chaotic universe in which we would not be able to predict anything. Ulf Torkelsson |
#98
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Max Keon wrote:
Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote: From your viewpoint in the big bang universe, the initial temperature of the visible universe was 4000 degrees K, and due to the expansion of space in the 13.7 billion years from just after the bang up until now, the 4000 K temperature has finally reduced to almost zero. So, what you are telling me is that the 4000 K temperature should, in the local universe, be 4000^.25 = 8 K. No, this is not what the big bang model says. It says that a few hundred thousand years after the big bang the universe had become sufficiently cool, about 4000 K, that the electrons could combine with the atomic nuclei to form atoms. At that time the universe becomes transparent to electromagnetic radiation. Since then the universe has expanded by a factor 1300, and consequently the temperature of the universe has dropped to 4000/1300 = 3 K. However, from my viewpoint in the zero origin universe, the temperature of the era (which you assume to be a meager 13.77E+9 light years in the past) is exactly as it now appears. *It was colder back then*. There are two problems with this viewpoint. Firstly there is no explanation of why the universe would today have a temperature of 3 K rather than anything else. Secondly, as I have pointed out before, we can observe molecules at high redshifts and they behave as the universe was hotter back then, and certainly not as if the universe was colder back then. Explain the fact that supernova light curve width increase with (1+z). The only way that can happen in your expanding universe is for the light curve width to remain constant (from your viewpoint in the present) for every supernova event since the big bang. Which is a bit surprising to me in the zero origin universe because it sets specific localized evolution parameters before the explosion can occur, regardless of where the rest of the universe is on the evolutionary scale. It may be surprising to you, but the time scale of the supernova is set by the physical laws describing the supernova explosion. Since the laws of physics have always been the same the time scale of the supernova explosion has always been the same, but then we observe this light curve expanded since the universe itself is expanding. Ulf Torkelsson |
#99
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Max Keon wrote:
Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote: Max Keon wrote: Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: ------ ------ You will also agree that there are no limitations on how long a continuous wavetrain can be? An unbroken wavetrain one light year in length can be generated in an atomic clock, and that signal can be amplified so that it can be transmitted to the top of the tower and beyond. It is clearly no different to the wavetrain generated in the iron sample. Agreed, but relativity teaches us that both length and time are relative concepts. Different observers will measure different lengths and different times. It also teaches us to believe in some things that are counter-intuitive. Indeed. Physics has teached us for several hundred years now. E.g. it has teached us the counter-intuitive fact that the Earth goes round the sun. But that's certainly not an uncommon practice. Somewhere along the line a wave of truth must start rolling across this planet because bull**** can't be piled up indefinitely. Is this an insinuation that relativity is bull****? Anything counter-intuitive is a potential blob on the pile. See my comment above wrt counter-intuitive things in physics. You apparently chose to ignore that. [snip] I've never argued against the fact that clocks run at different rates at different altitudes. But I do reject any theory which predicts that a wavetrain length will undergo permanent change when it's climbing out of a gravity well. Address the results of the Pound-Rebka experiment. After you finally managed to read up on how it was actually done. I see you don't bother to read up how it was actually done. The conclusion drawn from the Pound and Rebka experiment could have gone either way, No, it couldn't. Finally read up on how it was actually done, please. I see you don't bother to read up how it was actually done. but the natural choice was to go along with the theory of the day. The atomic clock scenario falsifies the chosen conclusion. It does do nothing like that. The clock at the tower base is seen to be running slower according to the time rate in the clock at the tower top, because it *is* running slower. You are still ignoring the gravitational redshift, I see. The gravitational redshift will show up in the clock rate difference between the tower base clock and the tower top clock. Before making claims about what hypothetical experiments *would* show, please first read up how the *actual* experiment was done, and what its results are. [snip a lot of obfuscation] When the wavetrain transmitted from the tower base clock passes by the top clock, it will pass by at exactly the same frequency as that indicated on the LCD attached to and driven by the tower base clock. That's not difficult to falsify. It was falsified by Pound and Rebka. Finally read up on how the experiment was actually done, please. You seem to be purposely missing the point. You seem to be purposely ignoring the actual experiment. Bye, Bjoern |
#100
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Max Keon wrote:
Bjoern Feuerbacher wrote: Max Keon wrote: Ulf Torkelsson wrote: Max Keon wrote: The temperature of an era can be represented by the wavelength of the most copiously generated E/M transmission at the time. The evolution of the universe can be plotted along the scale of increasing temperatures for the most copiously emitted wavelengths. This is wrong on several accounts. Firstly it has been pointed out to you several times already that the universe is cooling down, not heating up, and this is supported by observations of molecules at high redshifts. Your claim that this is due to that the background becomes cooler because the local universe is heating up does not make any sense, because we can measure the temperature of the microwave black body radiation both locally, in our galaxy, and at high redshifts using molecules in our galaxy, and at high redshifts, respectively, and they show that the universe is at least not heating up. There's no point trying to understand a consequence of the zero origin universe while you're standing in the big bang universe. We are simply pointing out what the *observations* say. Not what the theory says. Address the observations, please. I see you don't bother to address the observations. It's just not possible. The observed redshift per distance is the conclusive proof that the universe was colder in the past. Why on earth do you think so? Care to explain? In the zero origin universe, there is no expansion. Explain the fact that the surface brightness of galaxies decreases with (1+z)^4. What you write below has nothing to do with explaining that fact. From your viewpoint in the big bang universe, the initial temperature of the visible universe was 4000 degrees K, Why do you think so? Where did you get that number from? and due to the expansion of space in the 13.7 billion years from just after the bang up until now, the 4000 K temperature has finally reduced to almost zero. So, what you are telling me is that the 4000 K temperature should, in the local universe, be 4000^.25 = 8 K. Where on Earth did you get the factor .25 from? However, from my viewpoint in the zero origin universe, the temperature of the era (which you assume to be a meager 13.77E+9 light years in the past) is exactly as it now appears. *It was colder back then*. Explain the evidence which shows otherwise. Explain the fact that supernova light curve width increase with (1+z). I notice you did not explain that below. The only way that can happen in your expanding universe is for the light curve width to remain constant (from your viewpoint in the present) Roughly constant, indeed. There are some variations observed, but they are quite small. for every supernova event since the big bang. No, merely for the supernovae of population II stars. Which is a bit surprising to me in the zero origin universe because it sets specific localized evolution parameters before the explosion can occur, regardless of where the rest of the universe is on the evolutionary scale. The supernova would certainly demolish the gravity well from whence it came, and reset that local evolutionary balance back with the rest of the universe. Incomprehensible. Explain the fact that the temperature of the CMBR in distant galaxies is measured to be higher by a factor (1+z). Etc. You apply a redshift component that maximizes right on the big bang and then reduce it at a linear rate to the present, and claim to have found proof of a cooling universe????? Incomprehensible. What is a "redshift component", and how does one "apply" it? What do you mean with "reduce it at a linear rate to the present"? And what has that to do with fact that the temperature of the CMBR in distant galaxies is measured to be higher by a factor (1+z)? The higher the redshift the colder the universe. Unsupported assertion. Only if one chooses to live in a big bang universe. It is a *fact* that you have not supported your assertion so far. It is clearly observed in the zero origin universe. What is *observed* directly is only the redshift. All else is interpretation. Please tell me how you arrived at your interpretation above. Bye, Bjoern |
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