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Richard Feynman Lying About the Speed of Light?



 
 
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Old September 2nd 17, 11:19 PM posted to sci.astro
Pentcho Valev
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Default Richard Feynman Lying About the Speed of Light?

Richard Feynman: "Another consequence of the [Maxwell's] equations is that if the source of the disturbance is moving, the light emitted goes through space at the same speed c. This is analogous to the case of sound, the speed of sound waves being likewise independent of the motion of the source. This independence of the motion of the source, in the case of light, brings up an interesting problem: Suppose we are riding in a car that is going at a speed u, and light from the rear is going past the car with speed c. Differentiating the first equation in (15.2) gives dx'/dt=dx/dt-u, which means that according to the Galilean transformation the apparent speed of the passing light, as we measure it in the car, should not be c but should be c-u.. For instance, if the car is going 100,000 mi/sec, and the light is going 186,000 mi/sec, then apparently the light going past the car should go 86,000 mi/sec. In any case, by measuring the speed of the light going past the car (if the Galilean transformation is correct for light), one could determine the speed of the car. A number of experiments based on this general idea were performed to determine the velocity of the earth, but they all failed - they gave no velocity at all. We shall discuss one of these experiments in detail, to show exactly what was done and what was the matter; something was the matter, of course, something was wrong with the equations of physics. What could it be? [...] As mentioned above, attempts were made to determine the absolute velocity of the earth through the hypothetical "ether" that was supposed to pervade all space. The most famous of these experiments is one performed by Michelson and Morley in 1887." http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_15.html

The light-from-the-rear-is-going-past-the-car experiment and the Michelson-Morley experiment are by no means analogous. So either Feynman is deliberately misleading his students into believing that measuring in the car would give c, not c-u, or ... he simply does not understand that the two experiments are not analogous.

Pentcho Valev
  #2  
Old September 3rd 17, 07:46 AM posted to sci.astro
Pentcho Valev
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Default Richard Feynman Lying About the Speed of Light?

Richard Feynman: "Suppose we are riding in a car that is going at a speed u, and light from the rear is going past the car with speed c. Differentiating the first equation in (15.2) gives dx'/dt=dx/dt-u, which means that according to the Galilean transformation the apparent speed of the passing light, as we measure it in the car, should not be c but should be c-u. For instance, if the car is going 100,000 mi/sec, and the light is going 186,000 mi/sec, then apparently the light going past the car should go 86,000 mi/sec."
http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_15.html

And this is the correct result (Einstein's relativity is wrong) - Feynman should not have tried to confuse his students by fabricating the false analogy with the Michelson-Morley experiment. The speed of light has not been measured in such Doppler-type experiments but the frequency has been measured and it is

f' = (c-u)/d

where d is distance between light pulses (or wavefronts):

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SC0Q6-xt-Xs
"Doppler effect - when an observer moves away from a stationary source. ....the velocity of the wave relative to the observer is slower than that when it is still."

Pentcho Valev
  #3  
Old September 4th 17, 08:19 AM posted to sci.astro
Pentcho Valev
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Default Richard Feynman Lying About the Speed of Light?

Richard Feynman was a powerful brainwasher:

Richard Feynman: "Suppose we are riding in a car that is going at a speed u, and light from the rear is going past the car with speed c. Differentiating the first equation in (15.2) gives dx'/dt=dx/dt-u, which means that according to the Galilean transformation the apparent speed of the passing light, as we measure it in the car, should not be c but should be c-u. For instance, if the car is going 100,000 mi/sec, and the light is going 186,000 mi/sec, then apparently the light going past the car should go 86,000 mi/sec. In any case, by measuring the speed of the light going past the car (if the Galilean transformation is correct for light), one could determine the speed of the car. A number of experiments based on this general idea were performed to determine the velocity of the earth, but they all failed - they gave no velocity at all. We shall discuss one of these experiments in detail, to show exactly what was done and what was the matter; something was the matter, of course, something was wrong with the equations of physics. What could it be? [...] As mentioned above, attempts were made to determine the absolute velocity of the earth through the hypothetical "ether" that was supposed to pervade all space. The most famous of these experiments is one performed by Michelson and Morley in 1887. [...] The result of the Michelson-Morley experiment was very puzzling and most disturbing. The first fruitful idea for finding a way out of the impasse came from Lorentz. He suggested that material bodies contract when they are moving..." http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_15.html

Feynman's students are misled into believing that the impasse is due to a contradiction between the Galilean transformation (c-u) and the result of the Michelson-Morley experiment, and that the length contraction ad hoc introduced by Lorentz is the first "fruitful" step in the right direction - replacing the discredited Galilean transformation with the correct Lorentz transformation.

Actually in 1887 (prior to FitzGerald and Lorentz advancing the ad hoc length contraction hypothesis) the Michelson-Morley experiment UNEQUIVOCALLY confirmed the variable speed of light, c-u, of the Galilean transformation (a tenet of Newton's emission theory of light) and refuted the constant (independent of the motion of the source) speed of light posited by the ether theory and later adopted by Einstein as his 1905 second ("light") postulate:

http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/1228...n_Discover.pdf
"To it, we should add that the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment was unhelpful and possibly counter-productive in Einstein's investigations of an emission theory of light, for the null result is predicted by an emission theory."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emission_theory
"Emission theory, also called emitter theory or ballistic theory of light, was a competing theory for the special theory of relativity, explaining the results of the Michelson–Morley experiment of 1887. [...] The name most often associated with emission theory is Isaac Newton. In his corpuscular theory Newton visualized light "corpuscles" being thrown off from hot bodies at a nominal speed of c with respect to the emitting object, and obeying the usual laws of Newtonian mechanics, and we then expect light to be moving towards us with a speed that is offset by the speed of the distant emitter (c ± v)."

http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/1743/2/Norton.pdf
"The Michelson-Morley experiment is fully compatible with an emission theory of light that CONTRADICTS THE LIGHT POSTULATE."

https://www.amazon.com/Relativity-It.../dp/0486406768
Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92: "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether. If it was so obvious, though, why did he need to state it as a principle? Because, having taken from the idea of light waves in the ether the one aspect that he needed, he declared early in his paper, to quote his own words, that "the introduction of a 'luminiferous ether' will prove to be superfluous."

Pentcho Valev
  #4  
Old September 5th 17, 09:23 PM posted to sci.astro
Pentcho Valev
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Default Richard Feynman Lying About the Speed of Light?

As he teaches Einstein's relativity Feynman blatantly lies about almost everything:

Richard Feynman: "One of the consequences of Maxwell's equations is that if there is a disturbance in the field such that light is generated, these electromagnetic waves go out in all directions equally and at the same speed c, or 186,000 mi/sec. Another consequence of the equations is that if the source of the disturbance is moving, the light emitted goes through space at the same speed c. This is analogous to the case of sound, the speed of sound waves being likewise independent of the motion of the source." http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_15.html

This is not a consequence of the Maxwell's equations but of the ether concept. Maxwell's theory was an ether theory and that was the only reason why it predicted independence of the motion of the source (today's version of the Maxwell's equations makes no such prediction). Banesh Hoffmann, cleverer and more honest than Feynman, gives a perfect explanation he

https://www.amazon.com/Relativity-It.../dp/0486406768
Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92: "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether. If it was so obvious, though, why did he need to state it as a principle? Because, having taken from the idea of light waves in the ether the one aspect that he needed, he declared early in his paper, to quote his own words, that "the introduction of a 'luminiferous ether' will prove to be superfluous."

Note that, according to Banesh Hoffmann, the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment confirms the variable speed of light posited by Newton's emission theory of light unless one resorts to ad hoc miracles ("contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations"). Feynman seems totally unable to understand such subtleties.

Pentcho Valev
 




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