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#61
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"George Dishman" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "kenseto" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: snip but the elapsed proper time between two points in spacetime depends on the path taken between them -- this is _geometry_, not any sort of change in "tick rates". Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, which implies that the measured "time content" in each tick is a constant (i.e. "universal"). This is what I thought Seto was getting at with his question. Correct...that's what I was getting at. What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. The fact that Relativity asserts that differences in elapsed time *are* differences in the tick counts of (ideal) clocks, logically implies that every interval between the ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time. OK, then I misread your first version and I apologise for that. If I follow, you are saying each second measured by an ideal clock contains the same amount of (proper) time regardless of its motion, hence that amount is in a sense "universal" which is perfectly correct. He didn't say that the same amount of proper time. He said: "ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time." I could be wrong but I think from some of Ken's other comments that he was saying that the definition implied each second as measured by a clock contained the same amount of universal (or absolute) time which is quite different. That's no difference than what jem said. The SRians claim that time is what the clock measures. This definition implies that a clock second contains the same amount of universal time regardless of the motion of the clock. Ken Seto |
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"kenseto" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "kenseto" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: snip but the elapsed proper time between two points in spacetime depends on the path taken between them -- this is _geometry_, not any sort of change in "tick rates". Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, which implies that the measured "time content" in each tick is a constant (i.e. "universal"). This is what I thought Seto was getting at with his question. Correct...that's what I was getting at. What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. The fact that Relativity asserts that differences in elapsed time *are* differences in the tick counts of (ideal) clocks, logically implies that every interval between the ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time. OK, then I misread your first version and I apologise for that. If I follow, you are saying each second measured by an ideal clock contains the same amount of (proper) time regardless of its motion, hence that amount is in a sense "universal" which is perfectly correct. He didn't say that the same amount of proper time. He said: "ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time." There is a big difference between saying "a universal quantity of time" and "a quantity of universal time". I'll let Jem speakfor himself though as I got it wrong last time. I could be wrong but I think from some of Ken's other comments that he was saying that the definition implied each second as measured by a clock contained the same amount of universal (or absolute) time which is quite different. That's no difference than what jem said. I think there is, but perhaps he will clarify. The SRians claim that time is what the clock measures. This definition implies that a clock second contains the same amount of universal time regardless of the motion of the clock. No, since all clocks measure proper time (by observation), it implies that in the real world only proper time exists. Universal time is a figment of our imaginations. George |
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"jem" wrote in message news:Tz4de.619$sy6.526@lakeread04... kenseto wrote: "jem" wrote in message news:XJ3de.615$sy6.240@lakeread04... kenseto wrote: "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: jem wrote: Bottom line: In SR and GR the elapsed proper times shown by the clocks in a twin scenario will differ. i.e. the tick counts on their clocks differ. But one cannot infer from this that the clocks themselves "ticked at different rates". Right. In fact it must be assumed that the tick rates are the same in order to infer that the difference in tick counts represents a difference in elapsed time. I disagree. The clocks tick at different rates can represent the difference in elapsed time. If two clocks tick at different rates then a difference in their tick counts will be due to both the difference in their elapsed times and the difference in their tick rates, ehich represents more than just a difference in elapsed time. The problem here is that you used tick counts as elapsed time. It's not a problem - it's what's done in Relativity. So the difference in their tick counts is the same as the difference in elapsed time. Right. In SR/GR, clocks always tick at their usual rates, and there's the assumption. Right....that's a nonsenical assumption. It assumes that each tick have the same absolute duration in all frames of reference. I thimk you're too hung up on the word "absolute". But absolute time (universal time) is the only time that exists. Clock time...a clock second... will represent a different amount of absolute time in different frames. That's the interpretation in IRT and LET, but not in Relativity which doesn't model an absolute time. But you said a clock second represents an interval of universal time. BTW, LET and IRT have different interpretations. LET interprets rod contraction IRT interprets rod remains the same but the light path of a rod changes. LET interprets clocks running at a slower rate when in moiton. IRT interprets that the different clock time intervals in different states of motion (different frames) represent the same interval of absolute time. The fact that time *intervals* have the same duration for every (ideal) clock This would mean that your (ideal) clock is an universal clock....no such clock exists. Definition for a universal clock: A clock that records the same rate passage of absolute time in different frames (different state of absolute motion). Also a universal clock will experience no time dilation....there is no slowing of a universal clock due to motion of any kind. I've described clock behavior in the contest of Relativity, and as I keep telling you "absolute time" isn't a feature of Relativity (i.e. the definition you gave of a universal clock isn't meaningful). But relativity treats a clock second as an interval of universal time...this is evidence when SR compared the twin's clock second directly with the stay at home clock second. At the same time it says that a clcok second in one frame corresponds to less than a clock second in another frame. Consider the odometer analogy TR mentioned. Does the rate at which the odometer moves change as a result of the motion of the vehicle? No, but two cars with synchronized odometers can leave and return to a single location and show different odometer readings. This is the sense in which time dilation affects clocks. implies nothing about the amount of time each clock experiences betweeen two events (except that the time difference will equal the difference in tick counts). Here you use tick count to represent the passage of absolute time in different frames. Passage of time, yes. Passage of absolute time, no. So why did you agree that a clock second represents the same interval of universal time in all frames? Ken Seto |
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kenseto wrote:
"jem" wrote in message news:Z94de.616$sy6.335@lakeread04... kenseto wrote: For a detail explanation of this please read my Improved Relativity Theory (IRT) in the following link (Pages 2-4) http://www.geocities.com/kn_seto/NPApaper.pdf If you want IRT to gain some credibility, all you need to do is show how you reproduced the Pioneer trajectories with it. I don't have the data that call for by the IRT equations to do the calculations.. So how can you claim that IRT resolves the discrepancies that arise under GRT? Those claims are based on the theoretical predictions of Model Mechanics. The problem of GRT are resolved by the ad hoc additions of dark matter and dark energy. Model Mechanics (IRT) includes these entities in its basic descriptions of the universe. What I'm asking is how do you know the theoretical predictions of IRT match the data if you don't have access to the data? In the meantime maybe you could explain a couple of things that aren't clear to me. What's the difference between "physical length" and "light path length"? If a rod is in a state of absolute motion the physical length would be shorter than the light path length. Why? Because light will need to travel an extra length to catch up to the other end of the rod during its flight to cover the length of the rod. My proposed experiments in the same above link are designed to show this effect of absolute motion. What I get from that description is that "light path length of a rod" is the distance a light pulse would travel from the trailing end to the leading end of a uniformly moving rod, Yes. where the distance and speed measurements are carried out in the absolute reference frame. Is that right? No...the distance measurement is carried out in the observer's frame. The method is using the light-second to do the measurement. Using light-second to measure distance automatically measures the light path length of a rod. Why? Because the absolute time content for an observer's clcok second is a direct consequence of the state of absolute motion of the clock co-moving with the rod. BTW this is the reason why the speed of light is measured to be a constant math ratio in all frames as follows: Light path length of rod (299,792,458m)/thew absolute time content for a clock second co-moving with the rod. OK, I'll take a closer look at this when I have more time. What's meant by "the time interval for the simultaneity to occur will be different in different frames"? The assumption here is that the two frames are in different states of absolute motion. In Einstein's train gedanken: the train is in a higher state of absolute motion than the track. That means that the track observer will see the lightning strikes to be simultaneous at a time L/c. However, the light path length in the train is gamma*L. Therefore the train observer will see the strikes to be simultaneous at gamma*L/c. I can't think of any sense in which "time interval for simultaneity to occur" is meaningful. Why not? Because simultaneous events are separated by a zero length time interval. If the light path in the train is longer than in the track then light will take a longer time (absolute time) to reach the observer in the middle and thus simultaneity in the train will take a longer time to occur. Are you perhaps referring to the time lag between the lightning strikes and the light flashes reaching the onservers? No...the lightning strikes are simultaneous in the track and in the train. In the track the simultaneity occur at an earlier time because the light path length in the track is shorter than in the train. Suppose the lightning strikes are simultaneous in the track frame (say the two strikes occur at (x1,t) and (x2,t), where the first coordinate is spatial and the 2nd is time. Substitute those two coordinates into the coordinate transformation equations in your IRT paper to find the times that the events occur in the train frame. When you do that, you'll find that only if the lightning strikes occur at the same place (x1=x2), or if the train velocity is zero (f_aa=f_ab), will the stikes be simultaneous in train frame as well. |
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George Dishman wrote:
"jem" wrote in message news:Sh4de.617$sy6.117@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: jem wrote: snip Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, See above. This is essentially what we mean by "clock". But we can only compare them accurately when they are collocated and comoving. Yes, but without the assumption that the tick rates are unaffected by motion, it's wouldn't be possible to infer that differences in tick counts represent differences in elapsed times (e.g. LET assumes that mtion has a specific affect on the tick rates, and from that infers there's no difference in elapsed (absolute) times). Isn't it the other way round? LET assumes time is universal and is therefore forced by experiment to conclude that clock rates vary with speed. In other words the formulae for length contraction, time dilation and mass increase are empirical in LET but derived from the geometry in SR. Perhaps - I don't know what the LET supporters favored way of looking at it is. In general, though, any distinction between the assumptions and conclusions of a theory is an arbitrary one. |
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George Dishman wrote:
"jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "kenseto" wrote in message . .. "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: snip but the elapsed proper time between two points in spacetime depends on the path taken between them -- this is _geometry_, not any sort of change in "tick rates". Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, which implies that the measured "time content" in each tick is a constant (i.e. "universal"). This is what I thought Seto was getting at with his question. Correct...that's what I was getting at. What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. and you think mine is unreal? The fact that Relativity asserts that differences in elapsed time *are* differences in the tick counts of (ideal) clocks, logically implies that every interval between the ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time. OK, then I misread your first version and I apologise for that. No problem. If I follow, you are saying each second measured by an ideal clock contains the same amount of (proper) time regardless of its motion, hence that amount is in a sense "universal" which is perfectly correct. Yes. I could be wrong but I think from some of Ken's other comments that he was saying that the definition implied each second as measured by a clock contained the same amount of universal (or absolute) time which is quite different. Yes. |
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kenseto wrote:
"jem" wrote in message news:Tz4de.619$sy6.526@lakeread04... kenseto wrote: "jem" wrote in message news:XJ3de.615$sy6.240@lakeread04... kenseto wrote: "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: jem wrote: Bottom line: In SR and GR the elapsed proper times shown by the clocks in a twin scenario will differ. i.e. the tick counts on their clocks differ. But one cannot infer from this that the clocks themselves "ticked at different rates". Right. In fact it must be assumed that the tick rates are the same in order to infer that the difference in tick counts represents a difference in elapsed time. I disagree. The clocks tick at different rates can represent the difference in elapsed time. If two clocks tick at different rates then a difference in their tick counts will be due to both the difference in their elapsed times and the difference in their tick rates, ehich represents more than just a difference in elapsed time. The problem here is that you used tick counts as elapsed time. It's not a problem - it's what's done in Relativity. So the difference in their tick counts is the same as the difference in elapsed time. Right. In SR/GR, clocks always tick at their usual rates, and there's the assumption. Right....that's a nonsenical assumption. It assumes that each tick have the same absolute duration in all frames of reference. I thimk you're too hung up on the word "absolute". But absolute time (universal time) is the only time that exists. Clock time...a clock second... will represent a different amount of absolute time in different frames. That's the interpretation in IRT and LET, but not in Relativity which doesn't model an absolute time. But you said a clock second represents an interval of universal time. No, I said it represents a "universal interval of time", which basically just means that (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate. BTW, LET and IRT have different interpretations. LET interprets rod contraction IRT interprets rod remains the same but the light path of a rod changes. LET interprets clocks running at a slower rate when in moiton. IRT interprets that the different clock time intervals in different states of motion (different frames) represent the same interval of absolute time. Sounds fishy. I need to take a close look at your paper, but don't have the time right now. The fact that time *intervals* have the same duration for every (ideal) clock This would mean that your (ideal) clock is an universal clock....no such clock exists. Definition for a universal clock: A clock that records the same rate passage of absolute time in different frames (different state of absolute motion). Also a universal clock will experience no time dilation....there is no slowing of a universal clock due to motion of any kind. I've described clock behavior in the contest of Relativity, and as I keep telling you "absolute time" isn't a feature of Relativity (i.e. the definition you gave of a universal clock isn't meaningful). But relativity treats a clock second as an interval of universal time...this is evidence when SR compared the twin's clock second directly with the stay at home clock second. At the same time it says that a clcok second in one frame corresponds to less than a clock second in another frame. Those two statements aren't contradictory, because the word "corresponds" doesn't have a definitive meaning. If "corresponds" is interprested to mean "is", then the statement containing it is false and a contradiction would arise, but if it's (correctly) interpreted to mean "is measured", then the statement is true, and there's no contrdiction. Consider the odometer analogy TR mentioned. Does the rate at which the odometer moves change as a result of the motion of the vehicle? No, but two cars with synchronized odometers can leave and return to a single location and show different odometer readings. This is the sense in which time dilation affects clocks. implies nothing about the amount of time each clock experiences betweeen two events (except that the time difference will equal the difference in tick counts). Here you use tick count to represent the passage of absolute time in different frames. Passage of time, yes. Passage of absolute time, no. So why did you agree that a clock second represents the same interval of universal time in all frames? Again, clock seconds of equal duration (i.e. universal time intervals) don't imply Absolute time. Relativity has the former, but not the latter, and LET has the latter, but not the former. |
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kenseto wrote:
"George Dishman" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "kenseto" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: snip but the elapsed proper time between two points in spacetime depends on the path taken between them -- this is _geometry_, not any sort of change in "tick rates". Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, which implies that the measured "time content" in each tick is a constant (i.e. "universal"). This is what I thought Seto was getting at with his question. Correct...that's what I was getting at. What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. The fact that Relativity asserts that differences in elapsed time *are* differences in the tick counts of (ideal) clocks, logically implies that every interval between the ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time. OK, then I misread your first version and I apologise for that. If I follow, you are saying each second measured by an ideal clock contains the same amount of (proper) time regardless of its motion, hence that amount is in a sense "universal" which is perfectly correct. He didn't say that the same amount of proper time. He said: "ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time." It's correct to say "proper time", since the time that ideal clocks register *is* "proper time". I could be wrong but I think from some of Ken's other comments that he was saying that the definition implied each second as measured by a clock contained the same amount of universal (or absolute) time which is quite different. That's no difference than what jem said. The SRians claim that time is what the clock measures. This definition implies that a clock second contains the same amount of universal time regardless of the motion of the clock. It implies that clock seconds contain the same amount of time, not the same amount of Universal/Absolute time (which is not even defined in Relativity). BTW, what is an SRian? |
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George Dishman wrote:
"kenseto" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "kenseto" wrote in message m... "jem" wrote in message news:iHpce.314$qV3.159@lakeread04... Tom Roberts wrote: snip but the elapsed proper time between two points in spacetime depends on the path taken between them -- this is _geometry_, not any sort of change in "tick rates". Right, so Relativity assumes all (ideal) clocks always tick at the same rate, which implies that the measured "time content" in each tick is a constant (i.e. "universal"). This is what I thought Seto was getting at with his question. Correct...that's what I was getting at. What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. The fact that Relativity asserts that differences in elapsed time *are* differences in the tick counts of (ideal) clocks, logically implies that every interval between the ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time. OK, then I misread your first version and I apologise for that. If I follow, you are saying each second measured by an ideal clock contains the same amount of (proper) time regardless of its motion, hence that amount is in a sense "universal" which is perfectly correct. He didn't say that the same amount of proper time. He said: "ticks of every such clock contains a universal quantity of time." There is a big difference between saying "a universal quantity of time" and "a quantity of universal time". I'll let Jem speakfor himself though as I got it wrong last time. Well, I'd say there's a big difference between saying "a universal quantity of time" and "a quantity of Universal (i.e. Absolute) time". I could be wrong but I think from some of Ken's other comments that he was saying that the definition implied each second as measured by a clock contained the same amount of universal (or absolute) time which is quite different. That's no difference than what jem said. I think there is, but perhaps he will clarify. Yes, as indicated above. The SRians claim that time is what the clock measures. This definition implies that a clock second contains the same amount of universal time regardless of the motion of the clock. No, since all clocks measure proper time (by observation), it implies that in the real world only proper time exists. All *ideal* clocks measure proper time (e.g. my computer clock sure doesn't ). There are other meaningful measures of time in Relativity too (e.g. "coordinate time"). Universal time is a figment of our imaginations. Not any more so than Relative time. Both are abstractions that exist within models created to describe Nature. The preference for Relativity over say aether theories is due to practical considerations (it's easier to work with - at least after the initial affront to intuition is overcome), and not because Relativity is the "correct" viewpoint. |
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"jem" wrote in message news:Y%ode.1217$sy6.678@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: "jem" wrote in message news:rn4de.618$sy6.438@lakeread04... George Dishman wrote: .... What you are missing is that "jem" is using "universal" to mean a "universal calibration method", not units of "universal time". No, "George", I meant what I said. No need for quotes, that's my real name. and you think mine is unreal? Of course, real names are capitalised! Sorry Jem. George |
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