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Ranging and Pioneer
[[Mod. note -- This thread seems to be moving out of s.a.r ("astronomy")
and over to s.p.r ("physics, in particular quantum mechanics"). Perhaps future discussion should be only in s.p.r and not cross-posted to s.a.r? -- jt]] Thus spake Igor Khavkine Oh No wrote: Thus spake Igor Khavkine Oh No wrote: 1. Which objects are you treating classically and which quantum mechanically? I treat the emission of a photon from a distant object and its detection on Earth quantum mechanically. The distant object is a conglomeration of quantum particles. That is a very complicated way to model anything big, bigger than, say, a few millimeters. For macroscopic objects, we usually have the relation (quantum treatment) = (classical treatment) * (1 + C*hbar/N + ...), where N is roughly the number of particles in the object. If you assert that a quantum treatment is necessary, then you have to provide an estimate of the constant C and compare it to hbar/N in magnitude. That's what I asked in question (3.). However, I still don't see how C would be large enough. This indicates to me that you take a very different approach to quantum theory from me. My starting point is to use axiomatic quantum theory, in the manner of Von Neumann, and to set up a Fock space of quantum particles. I take a classical object to have properties of a large population of such particles. Classical properties can be found by taking expectation values of quantum observables. But as far as the red shift relation is concerned, I am only looking at individual photons. 2. Can you rephrase all your references to "wave functions" in terms of the language of an abstract Hilbert space of states and operators observables? Yes. In fact that is where I come in. I find that it is necessary to use coordinates which are conformally flat in the time-radial plane in order to do this, so that quantum mechanics is effectively formulated on a Penrose diagram in the time-radial plane. First, I'm not sure what a coordinate choice has to do with Hilbert spaces and operator observables. So, I can't see how my question was answered. The coordinate choice is fixed because I require plane wave motions in the time-radial plane, or more properly that momentum in the final state is teleparallel to momentum in the initial state. Second, what if I don't like your choice of coordinates, can I or someone else redo your calculations in global inertial coordinates (if in Minkowski space) or in arbitrary coordinates (if in arbitrary space-time)? No (see above). In Minkowski space the formulation reduces to standard quantum mechanics - but then there is no expansion and cosmological redshift is 0, so the results are null. To write down the wave function I am using a closed FRW space-time, with global coordinates given by ds^2 = a^2(4(dt^2 - dr^2) - 1/4 sin^2(r)(dtheta^2 + sin^2(theta)dphi^2)) Teleparallel displacement of momentum imposes that dt^2 and dr^2 have the same coefficient. The factors 4 and 1/4 come in because teleparallel displacement results in cosmological redshift being proportional to the square of the expansion parameter (I think this is related to electrons having spin 1/2 but I have not explored that). A classical motion is considered to be continuously observable and so is modelled as a sequence of quantum motions initial state - final state = initial state for next part of motion When the final state becomes the initial state for the next part of the motion the quantum theory has to be rescaled, with the consequence that momentum is renormalised. This removes a factor of the expansion parameter. Since the initial state and final state are infinitesimally close together the connection reduces to the standard affine connection of classical gtr at this point. 3. If you are proposing a quantum treatment of macroscopic objects like stars or the Pioneer space craft, can you demonstrate with a back-of-an-envelope estimate that said quantum effects would be observable? The quantum effects are observable when the accuracy of measurement of position is less than the effective wavelength of the Doppler signal. For Mars we have measurement accurate to about 10m, so the shift should be present in optical frequencies in measurement of Mars, [...] Hold on there... What if I use my naked eye to look at Mars? Then the measurement uncertainty would be much larger, on the order of AU even! Do you mean that I will then observe an overall shift in Mars' spectrum by some very small frequency? Usually when two observers (say, at the same place and at the same time) make the same measurement, but with different instruments, they get different uncertainties (depending on the instruments). But their uncertainty ranges should at least overlap. Doesn't look like that's happening in what you are describing. According to what you are saying, two obsevers may easily get non-overlapping uncertainty ranges for the shift measurement. No. The observed shift in Mars spectrum is equivalent to the Doppler shift of ~0.4 m/s, way below the resolution of any apparatus we have to measure it. [...] Potentially this can be tested from the original Pioneer tapes, because cycle slip is a prediction of the model (associated with collapse of the wave function). Can your model distinguish between a "collapse induced" cycle slip and one that's due merely to noise during detection? I don't see how, but I am not an expert on data analysis. I think collapsed induced cycle slip should take place at approximately equal intervals dependent on the apparatus used to measure it, but I would think it is likely to be drowned by noise. If a test could be set up with very low noise, then perhaps. Regards -- Charles Francis substitute charles for NotI to email |
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