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Max, I'm going trim almost all your reply so we can
focus on the question of signed velocities. We can come back to the other bits after that. Max Keon wrote: "George Dishman" wrote in message oups.com... .. Take Mercury's maximum radial velocity relative to the Sun on its journey to and from its perihelion, for example. v of course cannot be negative, regardless of direction. .... Now try your second equation which applies for inward motion and hence v is negative. Let's take a similar toy value of -0.01c: What on earth is a negative velocity? A car moving toward me at 60km/h is not moving at -60km/h toward me. Nor can it be moving at -60km/h away from me if it's going the other way. Wherever it's going it is traveling at +60km/h. That is the speed, not the velocity. If I'm following along at a constant distance behind the car, the car's velocity is zero relative to me. If I increase my speed by 10km/h, is the car traveling at -10km/h ? Relative to you yes. The distance between you is reducing so to get a negative distance change in a positive time you must have a negative relative velocity. Of course both cars are still moving forward so the first might be moving at 80km/h while the second is doing 90km/h and the relative velocity is 80-90 = -10. Of course it's not, it's moving toward me at 10km/h. And it's moving away at 10km/h if I decrease my speed at that rate. If you decrease your speed to 70km/h then the same calculation now gives you 80-70 = +10 as you expect. The + - switch should be applied to direction, not velocity. Velocity is a vector and includes the direction so if we think in terms of a car then we have a 2D situation and we can define the velocity as north-south and east-west components. For a car moving at 80km/h going east, the velocity would be (0, 80). If it was going west, it would be (0, -80). North is (80,0) while west is (-80, 0). The velocity of a car moving with a speed of 80km/h in a north-easterly direction is (56.6, 56.6). Speed is a scalar and is the magnitude of the velocity is if an object is moving at (vn, ve) then its speed is sqrt(vn^2 + vs^2). The location of a car can similarly be defined by distance east and distance north of some reference location. Velocity is the derivative of location so if the distance east decreases, then the easterly component of the velocity is negative. What you are doing is invalid. What I am doing is basic standard physics and entirely correct. What you are doing only works if you know the direction in advance, but near perihelon and aphelion, you may not be able to know the direction until you work th acceleration to find out whether the object has changed from outward to inward, so you don't know which equation to apply until you have applied it. The standard scientific method I am using always works since the direction is encoded in the sign. George |
#12
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![]() Negative values for velocity were introduced early in my 11th-grade physics course (Chapter 5, "Motion along a straight-line path"). They follow directly from the math we learned in 7th grade. If you want to measure positions and velocities of things, you probably start doing so without even thinking about the positive and negative directions. If I'm driving a car, the forward direction naturally gets positive values, and if I later need to drive backwards, it naturally gets negative values. If my language is written left-to-right, I will naturally count up from zero from left to right, and will naturally assign higher positive values to greater distances and speeds to the right. If I then want to find distances or speeds to the left, they will naturally get negative values. If I am launching rockets, I would naturally count my progress in altitude or vertical speed as larger positive values, and start running when I see large negative values. On the other hand, if I were drilling into the Earth or diving under water, I might assign larger positive values to greater depths and speeds of descent, and later, as the need arises, assign negative values to heights above the waterline and speeds of ascent. Using a single continuum for positive and negative values of any physical quantity is much easier to deal with mathematically and numerically than using two separate equations to deal with motion in opposite directions, and seems obviously to make much more sense. -- Jeff, in Minneapolis |
#13
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![]() "George Dishman" wrote in message ups.com... Max, I'm going trim almost all your reply so we can focus on the question of signed velocities. We can come back to the other bits after that. Max Keon wrote: "George Dishman" wrote in message oups.com... .. Take Mercury's maximum radial velocity relative to the Sun on its journey to and from its perihelion, for example. v of course cannot be negative, regardless of direction. .... Now try your second equation which applies for inward motion and hence v is negative. Let's take a similar toy value of -0.01c: What on earth is a negative velocity? A car moving toward me at 60km/h is not moving at -60km/h toward me. Nor can it be moving at -60km/h away from me if it's going the other way. Wherever it's going it is traveling at +60km/h. That is the speed, not the velocity. Why shouldn't speed and velocity be expected to abide by the same rules? The dictionary doesn't specify any unique properties for velocity that can't be applied to speed. If I'm following along at a constant distance behind the car, the car's velocity is zero relative to me. If I increase my speed by 10km/h, is the car traveling at -10km/h ? Relative to you yes. The distance between you is reducing so to get a negative distance change in a positive time you must have a negative relative velocity. Of course both cars are still moving forward so the first might be moving at 80km/h while the second is doing 90km/h and the relative velocity is 80-90 = -10. I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. How can anyone possibly have any confidence in mathematics if it's going to give the conflicting result that you're proposing? This time I'll adopt your "toy value" system. G = 1: M = 1: r = 1: c = 1. # = (c+v) * -(G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) Note that -(G*M/r^2) = -1 and (G*M/r^2) = 1. For v = .01 (c+v=1.01) # = 1.01 * -1 + 1 = -.01 For v = -.01 (c+v=.99) # = .99 * -1 + 1 = .01 Since you didn't include the + (G*M/r^2) in your analysis, while the difference between the two results is still the same, they are both negative. # = 1.01 * -1 = -1.01 # = .99 * -1 = -.99 If you don't get the same answer when you start shifting numbers about, you've done something wrong. It's hardly likely that the math will be at fault. ----- Max Keon |
#14
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![]() "Max Keon" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ups.com... Max, I'm going trim almost all your reply so we can focus on the question of signed velocities. We can come back to the other bits after that. Max Keon wrote: "George Dishman" wrote in message oups.com... .. Take Mercury's maximum radial velocity relative to the Sun on its journey to and from its perihelion, for example. v of course cannot be negative, regardless of direction. ... Now try your second equation which applies for inward motion and hence v is negative. Let's take a similar toy value of -0.01c: What on earth is a negative velocity? A car moving toward me at 60km/h is not moving at -60km/h toward me. Nor can it be moving at -60km/h away from me if it's going the other way. Wherever it's going it is traveling at +60km/h. That is the speed, not the velocity. Why shouldn't speed and velocity be expected to abide by the same rules? The dictionary doesn't specify any unique properties for velocity that can't be applied to speed. Your dictionary should have told you that velocity includes direction. I explained the difference but you snipped it: Velocity is a vector and includes the direction so if we think in terms of a car then we have a 2D situation and we can define the velocity as north-south and east-west components. For a car moving at 80km/h going east, the velocity would be (0, 80). If it was going west, it would be (0, -80). North is (80,0) while west is (-80, 0). The velocity of a car moving with a speed of 80km/h in a north-easterly direction is (56.6, 56.6). Speed is a scalar and is the magnitude of the velocity is if an object is moving at (vn, ve) then its speed is sqrt(vn^2 + vs^2). This is going to be critical for resolving our disagreements so please make sure you understand it. Note the velocities are all shown as number pairs. Try examples in all four quadrants to see where the components are negative and positive: http://www.phy.ntnu.edu.tw/ntnujava/viewtopic.php?t=68 If you don't have Java installed you can get it he http://www.java.com/en/ This doesn't use Java: http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/GBSSC...ors/u3l1b.html If I'm following along at a constant distance behind the car, the car's velocity is zero relative to me. If I increase my speed by 10km/h, is the car traveling at -10km/h ? Relative to you yes. The distance between you is reducing so to get a negative distance change in a positive time you must have a negative relative velocity. Of course both cars are still moving forward so the first might be moving at 80km/h while the second is doing 90km/h and the relative velocity is 80-90 = -10. I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. You will if you stick with just one of your equations, the changed sign inherent in using the standard convention means you don't need to swap between c+v and c-v. How can anyone possibly have any confidence in mathematics if it's going to give the conflicting result that you're proposing? This time I'll adopt your "toy value" system. G = 1: M = 1: r = 1: c = 1. # = (c+v) * -(G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) Note that -(G*M/r^2) = -1 and (G*M/r^2) = 1. For v = .01 (c+v=1.01) # = 1.01 * -1 + 1 = -.01 That is negative so indicates the anisotropic force is towards the Sun. For v = -.01 (c+v=.99) # = .99 * -1 + 1 = .01 That is positive so indicates the anisotropic force is away from the Sun. I believe those answers are both what you expected. Since you didn't include the + (G*M/r^2) in your analysis, while the difference between the two results is still the same, they are both negative. # = 1.01 * -1 = -1.01 # = .99 * -1 = -.99 Yes, we tend to lay aside the normal gravity when discussing your slight change. Overall for a positive velocity indicating motion away from the Sun at 0.01c the total pull towards the Sun is increased to 101% of the usual Newtonian value while for an object moving towards the Sun at 0.01c the pull is reduced to 99%. Correct me if I'm wrong but I thought that was what you expected. If you don't get the same answer when you start shifting numbers about, you've done something wrong. It's hardly likely that the math will be at fault. Indeed but my 'shifting about' always gave the same answers as your equations. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) always gives the same answers as -(G*M/r^2) * (-v/c) while ((c-v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) always gives the same answers as -(G*M/r^2) * (+v/c) The rules are mostly he http://www.mathsisfun.com/associativ...tributive.html but also (x^a)^b = x^(a*b) so (x^2)^0.5 = x^1 = x or simply the square root of the square of x is just x. The problem with the direction was something quite different, you didn't realise physics uses signed velocities and that change of sign means you don't need to use two different equations, a single equation does the job. George |
#15
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![]() "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message ... ------ ------ I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. You will if you stick with just one of your equations, the changed sign inherent in using the standard convention means you don't need to swap between c+v and c-v. I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html While I was there, I made another attempt at finding the words to better describe how Mercury's apparent loss of orbit momentum is conserved when it finally comes to rest in a stable orbit that counteracts the influence from the universe. It's impossible to justify any energy transfer between Mercury and the mass of the surrounding universe. It must be accounted for locally. The fact that the Pioneer anomaly exists demands that the question be resolved, one way or another, and a dedicated mission seems to be the only way to do that. Such a mission can tell us **much** about the universe, and is absolutely vital to the progress of physics. Afterall, truth is the ultimate goal, whatever the cost. So why waste time and money chasing rainbows if that experiment has the potential to turn physics upside down? It needs to be resolved before we go searching for dark matter, surely? ----- Max Keon |
#16
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Repeating post lost by ISP:
"Max Keon" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message ... ------ ------ I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. You will if you stick with just one of your equations, the changed sign inherent in using the standard convention means you don't need to swap between c+v and c-v. I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html You still have the incorrect equations show, they should be removed. "According to the conventional method of identifying gravity force direction, and the conventional method of identifying velocity direction relative to a gravity source, just the one equation is all that's required. But what it attempts to describe is not as clear. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2)" To anyone familiar with maths at high school level or beyond, your versions are both incorrect and very confusing. The Lorentz equations include ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 and it is very easy to misread your version as that, I did for some time before noticing what you were really saying. By far the clearest way is to write this way: a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) It is then obvious that your are taking the conventional Newtonian equation (-G*M/r^2) which everyone recognises and modifying it by the (1 + v/c) term. It also makes it clear that the result is first order where anyone looking at your versions would see the speed appearing only as "(c+v)^2" and assume it is second order. While I was there, I made another attempt at finding the words to better describe how Mercury's apparent loss of orbit momentum is conserved when it finally comes to rest in a stable orbit that counteracts the influence from the universe. It is still wrong, it does not conserve the momentum. Have you learned stuff about vector addition yet? Momentum is a vector so you _cannot_ conserve it without dealing with the direction issue. Assuming you are now familiar with the scalar laws, you next need to revise the vectors. You snipped that part: Velocity is a vector and includes the direction so if we think in terms of a car then we have a 2D situation and we can define the velocity as north-south and east-west components. For a car moving at 80km/h going east, the velocity would be (0, 80). If it was going west, it would be (0, -80). North is (80,0) while west is (-80, 0). The velocity of a car moving with a speed of 80km/h in a north-easterly direction is (56.6, 56.6). Speed is a scalar and is the magnitude of the velocity is if an object is moving at (vn, ve) then its speed is sqrt(vn^2 + vs^2). This is going to be critical for resolving our disagreements so please make sure you understand it. Note the velocities are all shown as number pairs. Try examples in all four quadrants to see where the components are negative and positive: http://www.phy.ntnu.edu.tw/ntnujava/viewtopic.php?t=68 If you don't have Java installed you can get it he http://www.java.com/en/ This doesn't use Java: http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/GBSSC...ors/u3l1b.html You are going to need to know that maths in order to understand the next steps. Just as a reminder of where your theory is at the moment, applying the equation above, either your form (the one with the correct sign) or mine, with a value of "the mass of the rest of the universe" taken from the Pioneer anomaly produces a simple decay: http://www.georgedishman.f2s.com/max/Mercury.png That rules out your model though a smaller mass which is insufficient to explain Pioneer may allow your idea to survive that test. It's impossible to justify any energy transfer between Mercury and the mass of the surrounding universe. It must be accounted for locally. In a collision between two objects, momentum is redistributed between them which can be considered local. The effect of gravity is not local. Right now Pioneer is being slowed by the Sun and losing momentum. If the total is to be conserved then that has to be matched by some other equal and opposite change at the same time. The gravitational effect on the Sun does that even though the craft is more than ten light hours away. If you abandon GR for Newton then you have what he called "instantaneous action at a distance" and whether the distance is ten light hours or ten light years makes no difference. Your equation is based on -GM/r^2 which applies instantaneously, there is no delay term in the equation. The fact that the Pioneer anomaly exists demands that the question be resolved, one way or another, and a dedicated mission seems to be the only way to do that. Such a mission can tell us **much** about the universe, and is absolutely vital to the progress of physics. Afterall, truth is the ultimate goal, whatever the cost. So why waste time and money chasing rainbows if that experiment has the potential to turn physics upside down? It needs to be resolved before we go searching for dark matter, surely? Many people would like to see a mission perhaps as an adjunct to an existing plan, but spending money to chase a gas leak or whatever when major plans are being postponed or cancelled to fund Bush's publicity stunts is unjustifiable. George |
#17
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![]() "George Dishman" wrote in message ups.com... Repeating post lost by ISP: "Max Keon" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message ... I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. You will if you stick with just one of your equations, the changed sign inherent in using the standard convention means you don't need to swap between c+v and c-v. I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html You still have the incorrect equations show, they should be removed. "According to the conventional method of identifying gravity force direction, and the conventional method of identifying velocity direction relative to a gravity source, just the one equation is all that's required. But what it attempts to describe is not as clear. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2)" To anyone familiar with maths at high school level or beyond, your versions are both incorrect and very confusing. The Lorentz equations include ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 and it is very easy to misread your version as that, I did for some time before noticing what you were really saying. By far the clearest way is to write this way: a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) Well why didn't Newton do that? And why do you think that a = (1 + v/c) * (-G*M/r^2) + (G*M/r^2) is not as confusing as a = ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) Your simplified equation is not describing the cause of the gravity anisotropy at all. It's very confusing in my opinion. In the original format, as two separate equations, each equation described very clearly how an object moving toward or away from a gravity source will be affected. In order to achieve that goal, there was nothing wrong with the way they were written in this extract from the web page. -- The equation representing an upward moving mass relative to a gravity source is ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2), while ((c-v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) represents a downward moving mass. Even matter in a fixed position relative to a gravity source is traveling outward through dimension because dimension is traveling inward through it, hence the action of gravity. -- It's obvious that velocity is added to or subtracted from the speed of light. And that should be obvious to anyone at all. It is then obvious that your are taking the conventional Newtonian equation (-G*M/r^2) which everyone recognises and modifying it by the (1 + v/c) term. It also makes it clear that the result is first order where anyone looking at your versions would see the speed appearing only as "(c+v)^2" and assume it is second order. While I was there, I made another attempt at finding the words to better describe how Mercury's apparent loss of orbit momentum is conserved when it finally comes to rest in a stable orbit that counteracts the influence from the universe. It is still wrong, it does not conserve the momentum. Have you learned stuff about vector addition yet? Momentum is a vector so you _cannot_ conserve it without dealing with the direction issue. Assuming you are now familiar with the scalar laws, you next need to revise the vectors. You snipped that part: Velocity is a vector and includes the direction so if we think in terms of a car then we have a 2D situation and we can define the velocity as north-south and east-west components. For a car moving at 80km/h going east, the velocity would be (0, 80). If it was going west, it would be (0, -80). North is (80,0) while west is (-80, 0). The velocity of a car moving with a speed of 80km/h in a north-easterly direction is (56.6, 56.6). Speed is a scalar and is the magnitude of the velocity is if an object is moving at (vn, ve) then its speed is sqrt(vn^2 + vs^2). This is going to be critical for resolving our disagreements so please make sure you understand it. Note the velocities are all shown as number pairs. Try examples in all four quadrants to see where the components are negative and positive: http://www.phy.ntnu.edu.tw/ntnujava/viewtopic.php?t=68 If you don't have Java installed you can get it he http://www.java.com/en/ This doesn't use Java: http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/GBSSC...ors/u3l1b.html You are going to need to know that maths in order to understand the next steps. Just as a reminder of where your theory is at the moment, applying the equation above, either your form (the one with the correct sign) or mine, with a value of "the mass of the rest of the universe" taken from the Pioneer anomaly produces a simple decay: That is to be expected of course because the math was never required to incorporate a velocity related gravity anisotropy. You later claim that momentum must be immediately conserved, but that is clearly an impossibility. There is always a time delay involved. http://www.georgedishman.f2s.com/max/Mercury.png That rules out your model though a smaller mass which is insufficient to explain Pioneer may allow your idea to survive that test. It's impossible to justify any energy transfer between Mercury and the mass of the surrounding universe. It must be accounted for locally. In a collision between two objects, momentum is redistributed between them which can be considered local. And a time delay is involved in the process if there is any component separation at all, even within the colliding components themselves. It takes time to redistribute momentum. The effect of gravity is not local. Right now Pioneer is being slowed by the Sun and losing momentum. If the total is to be conserved then that has to be matched by some other equal and opposite change at the same time. The Sun-Pioneer relationship is fairly constant, so even though they are both being drawn toward each other in a way the appears to immediately conserve momentum, the ten hour signal delay is still present. Neither the Sun or Pioneer could react instantly if the other suddenly ceased to exist. The gravitational effect on the Sun does that even though the craft is more than ten light hours away. If you abandon GR for Newton then you have what he called "instantaneous action at a distance" and whether the distance is ten light hours or ten light years makes no difference. Your equation is based on -GM/r^2 which applies instantaneously, there is no delay term in the equation. That has always been a totally absurd statement. Of course there's no delay term built into the equation. Why should there be? Nature provides the delay, not mathematics. That statement implies that math dictates how nature must behave. You can't simply gesture hypnotically and brush the obvious truth aside, that a time delay in the transfer of momentum in the physical world is very clearly a part of nature. But this has nothing whatever to do with Newton anyway. The zero origin universe has its own very specific rules, which most certainly don't include instantaneous action at a distance. Light speed is the absolute limit, **for a very good reason**. Such a time delay is certainly expected in that universe. Energy can be almost immediately removed from interacting charges and stored in space in the form of E/M radiation. But gravity is equivalent to only a single wave that extends to infinity. So there is obviously nowhere to store the energy equivalent of Pioneer's momentum loss due to its motion relative to the mass of the universe. Momentum is by no means immediately conserved, but it is conserved in time. The fact that the Pioneer anomaly exists demands that the question be resolved, one way or another, and a dedicated mission seems to be the only way to do that. Such a mission can tell us **much** about the universe, and is absolutely vital to the progress of physics. Afterall, truth is the ultimate goal, whatever the cost. So why waste time and money chasing rainbows if that experiment has the potential to turn physics upside down? It needs to be resolved before we go searching for dark matter, surely? Many people would like to see a mission perhaps as an adjunct to an existing plan, but spending money to chase a gas leak or whatever when major plans are being postponed or cancelled to fund Bush's publicity stunts is unjustifiable. Gas leaks or not, until the Pioneer anomaly has been properly resolved, there is no point whatever searching for the pot of dark matter at the end of the rainbow. Which is what it all boils down to in the end, isn't it? A dedicated mission would seem to be absolutely essential. ----- Max Keon |
#18
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![]() "Max Keon" wrote in message u... "George Dishman" wrote in message ups.com... Repeating post lost by ISP: "Max Keon" wrote in message ... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message ... I'll try to abide by your new set of rules and use a + - switch to identify velocity direction. I should still get the same answer though. You will if you stick with just one of your equations, the changed sign inherent in using the standard convention means you don't need to swap between c+v and c-v. I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html You still have the incorrect equations show, they should be removed. "According to the conventional method of identifying gravity force direction, and the conventional method of identifying velocity direction relative to a gravity source, just the one equation is all that's required. But what it attempts to describe is not as clear. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2)" To anyone familiar with maths at high school level or beyond, your versions are both incorrect and very confusing. The Lorentz equations include ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 and it is very easy to misread your version as that, I did for some time before noticing what you were really saying. By far the clearest way is to write this way: a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) Well why didn't Newton do that? He didn't have your (1+v/c) term because it doesn't exist. Other than that, we now take calculus for granted as something we all learnt at school while he had to invent it, so in explaining the physics he had to write in a much more detailed way. I can write "a" above and you know I mean acceleration which is the second derivative. And why do you think that a = (1 + v/c) * (-G*M/r^2) + (G*M/r^2) is not as confusing as a = ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) It would be, why have you added an extra term? The total acceleration in your theory is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) of which the Newtonian part is a = (-G*M/r^2) and the anisotropy is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) Add the two together to get the total. Your simplified equation is not describing the cause of the gravity anisotropy at all. It's very confusing in my opinion. I think you just need to learn these basic laws of arithmetic well enough to be able to read equations: http://www.mathsisfun.com/associativ...tributive.html In the original format, as two separate equations, each equation described very clearly how an object moving toward or away from a gravity source will be affected. In order to achieve that goal, there was nothing wrong with the way they were written in this extract from the web page. Except that the have the acceleration pointing in the same direction whether the body is moving towards or away from the Sun. -- The equation representing an upward moving mass relative to a gravity source is ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2), while ((c-v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) represents a downward moving mass. Even matter in a fixed position relative to a gravity source is traveling outward through dimension because dimension is traveling inward through it, hence the action of gravity. -- It's obvious that velocity is added to or subtracted from the speed of light. And that should be obvious to anyone at all. Sure, but if you add a positive number or subtract a negative number, the result has the same sign. Your equations may look pretty to you but they give the wrong answer. It is then obvious that your are taking the conventional Newtonian equation (-G*M/r^2) which everyone recognises and modifying it by the (1 + v/c) term. It also makes it clear that the result is first order where anyone looking at your versions would see the speed appearing only as "(c+v)^2" and assume it is second order. and that is why your version is confusing. While I was there, I made another attempt at finding the words to better describe how Mercury's apparent loss of orbit momentum is conserved when it finally comes to rest in a stable orbit that counteracts the influence from the universe. It is still wrong, it does not conserve the momentum. Have you learned stuff about vector addition yet? Momentum is a vector so you _cannot_ conserve it without dealing with the direction issue. snip stuff on vectors, it is too advanced at the moment Just as a reminder of where your theory is at the moment, applying the equation above, either your form (the one with the correct sign) or mine, with a value of "the mass of the rest of the universe" taken from the Pioneer anomaly produces a simple decay: http://www.georgedishman.f2s.com/max/Mercury.png That is to be expected of course because the math was never required to incorporate a velocity related gravity anisotropy. That graph uses _your_ math of course. You later claim that momentum must be immediately conserved, but that is clearly an impossibility. There is always a time delay involved. Sorry, a delay is impossible, the word "conserved" means that the total is unchanging. If Pioneer loses some momentum at some time and the Sun gets it after a delay, then for the duation of the delay, the total is lower so the value isn't conserved, it changes. In a collision between two objects, momentum is redistributed between them which can be considered local. And a time delay is involved in the process if there is any component separation at all, even within the colliding components themselves. It takes time to redistribute momentum. Nope, if that were true, it would not be conserved by definition. The effect of gravity is not local. Right now Pioneer is being slowed by the Sun and losing momentum. If the total is to be conserved then that has to be matched by some other equal and opposite change at the same time. The Sun-Pioneer relationship is fairly constant, so even though they are both being drawn toward each other in a way the appears to immediately conserve momentum, the ten hour signal delay is still present. Neither the Sun or Pioneer could react instantly if the other suddenly ceased to exist. That is true in GR but not in the Newtonian gravity that you are modifying. The gravitational effect on the Sun does that even though the craft is more than ten light hours away. If you abandon GR for Newton then you have what he called "instantaneous action at a distance" and whether the distance is ten light hours or ten light years makes no difference. Your equation is based on -GM/r^2 which applies instantaneously, there is no delay term in the equation. That has always been a totally absurd statement. Of course there's no delay term built into the equation. Why should there be? Nature provides the delay, not mathematics. Don't be stupid Max, you know that in order to work, the maths must be a model of nature. If nature has a delay, that must be reflected in the maths. That statement implies that math dictates how nature must behave. No, it says the maths must be written to reflect nature. You can't simply gesture hypnotically and brush the obvious truth aside, that a time delay in the transfer of momentum in the physical world is very clearly a part of nature. But this has nothing whatever to do with Newton anyway. The zero origin universe has its own very specific rules, which most certainly don't include instantaneous action at a distance. Light speed is the absolute limit, **for a very good reason**. Such a time delay is certainly expected in that universe. Then change your maths to show that delay. What you will find is something Newton knew, that it will produce aberration of the gravitational force and again cause the planets to spiral into the Sun. He didn't like the instantaneous nature of forces but he knew he had no choice if his maths was to work. Energy can be almost immediately removed from interacting charges and stored in space in the form of E/M radiation. But gravity is equivalent to only a single wave that extends to infinity. So there is obviously nowhere to store the energy equivalent of Pioneer's momentum loss due to its motion relative to the mass of the universe. Momentum is by no means immediately conserved, but it is conserved in time. The word "conserved" means it has the same value AT ALL TIMES. The fact that the Pioneer anomaly exists demands that the question be resolved, one way or another, and a dedicated mission seems to be the only way to do that. Such a mission can tell us **much** about the universe, and is absolutely vital to the progress of physics. Afterall, truth is the ultimate goal, whatever the cost. So why waste time and money chasing rainbows if that experiment has the potential to turn physics upside down? It needs to be resolved before we go searching for dark matter, surely? Many people would like to see a mission perhaps as an adjunct to an existing plan, but spending money to chase a gas leak or whatever when major plans are being postponed or cancelled to fund Bush's publicity stunts is unjustifiable. Gas leaks or not, until the Pioneer anomaly has been properly resolved, there is no point whatever searching for the pot of dark matter at the end of the rainbow. Which is what it all boils down to in the end, isn't it? Dark matter does not explain the Pioneer anomaly, and your idea doesn't explain either that or galactic rotation curves. However, you skills in maths are a long way short of being able to manipulate the equations to the point where you can follow the derivations. Either you start learning stuff like this or you will be stuck with taking my word for it (or that of others). It is basic arithmetic that you should have learnt at least in your first years of senior school so I don't know how you could have missed out: http://www.mathsisfun.com/associativ...tributive.html George |
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![]() "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message u... George Dishman wrote: Max Keon wrote: I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html You still have the incorrect equations show, they should be removed. "According to the conventional method of identifying gravity force direction, and the conventional method of identifying velocity direction relative to a gravity source, just the one equation is all that's required. But what it attempts to describe is not as clear. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2)" To anyone familiar with maths at high school level or beyond, your versions are both incorrect and very confusing. The Lorentz equations include ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 and it is very easy to misread your version as that, I did for some time before noticing what you were really saying. By far the clearest way is to write this way: a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) Well why didn't Newton do that? He didn't have your (1+v/c) term because it doesn't exist. But you said his equations included ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 Other than that, we now take calculus for granted as something we all learnt at school while he had to invent it, so in explaining the physics he had to write in a much more detailed way. I can write "a" above and you know I mean acceleration which is the second derivative. And why do you think that a = (1 + v/c) * (-G*M/r^2) + (G*M/r^2) is not as confusing as a = ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) It would be, why have you added an extra term? The total acceleration in your theory is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) of which the Newtonian part is a = (-G*M/r^2) and the anisotropy is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) Add the two together to get the total. ------ -- The equation representing an upward moving mass relative to a gravity source is ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2), while ((c-v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) represents a downward moving mass. Even matter in a fixed position relative to a gravity source is traveling outward through dimension because dimension is traveling inward through it, hence the action of gravity. -- It's obvious that velocity is added to or subtracted from the speed of light. And that should be obvious to anyone at all. Sure, but if you add a positive number or subtract a negative number, the result has the same sign. Your equations may look pretty to you but they give the wrong answer. You seem to be quite adamant that you can't understand my meaning unless velocity to and from a gravity source is signed differently. If I use the single equation, it's very confusing when applied for the universe generated anisotropy. The two equations are simultaneously active, as a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) and a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c). v is of course negative in one of them, but I'm not permitted to show which one. Using just the one equation, v is both positive and negative and thus cancels to become zero. Three cheers for mathematics, the universe is once again saved. You can call them one equation if you like, but they are no such thing. ------ snip stuff on vectors, it is too advanced at the moment Your vectors would need to include instantaneous conservation of momentum at a distance. And that is obviously wrong. ------ The effect of gravity is not local. Right now Pioneer is being slowed by the Sun and losing momentum. If the total is to be conserved then that has to be matched by some other equal and opposite change at the same time. The Sun-Pioneer relationship is fairly constant, so even though they are both being drawn toward each other in a way the appears to immediately conserve momentum, the ten hour signal delay is still present. Neither the Sun or Pioneer could react instantly if the other suddenly ceased to exist. That is true in GR but not in the Newtonian gravity that you are modifying. This is a whole new ball game based on gravity in the zero origin universe. It has nothing to do with Newton. The gravitational effect on the Sun does that even though the craft is more than ten light hours away. If you abandon GR for Newton then you have what he called "instantaneous action at a distance" and whether the distance is ten light hours or ten light years makes no difference. Your equation is based on -GM/r^2 which applies instantaneously, there is no delay term in the equation. That has always been a totally absurd statement. Of course there's no delay term built into the equation. Why should there be? Nature provides the delay, not mathematics. Don't be stupid Max, you know that in order to work, the maths must be a model of nature. If nature has a delay, that must be reflected in the maths. Then why isn't it? The delay obviously exists in nature. That statement implies that math dictates how nature must behave. No, it says the maths must be written to reflect nature. ???? You can't simply gesture hypnotically and brush the obvious truth aside, that a time delay in the transfer of momentum in the physical world is very clearly a part of nature. But this has nothing whatever to do with Newton anyway. The zero origin universe has its own very specific rules, which most certainly don't include instantaneous action at a distance. Light speed is the absolute limit, **for a very good reason**. Such a time delay is certainly expected in that universe. Then change your maths to show that delay. The universe generated gravity anisotropy depends on there being a delay _in nature_. The maths assumes that the delay exists. You assume the existence of dark matter because it ties in with the maths. I assume the existence of a delay in action at a distance because the maths requires it. It's also the only logical conclusion, and is a direct prediction as well. What you will find is something Newton knew, that it will produce aberration of the gravitational force and again cause the planets to spiral into the Sun. He didn't like the instantaneous nature of forces but he knew he had no choice if his maths was to work. I think he should have put more thought into the physical side of the problem instead of letting the maths confuse him. This is a binary star pair. 0 are their instantaneous positions, while + is where each appears to be. They will spiral away from each other, losing momentum, and their orbit velocities will slow until they reach a stable orbit radius. The only consequence is that they would be orbiting a little slower than the maths would predict. _But that couldn't be noticed because the masses of the stars are determined by orbit velocity_. Why do you think they would continue to lose momentum and spiral together? + 0- -0 + If the next scenario was possible, the stars would gain additional momentum as they are driven inward, and would thus continuously spiral away from each other. + 0- -0 + Is that how you see it? Energy can be almost immediately removed from interacting charges and stored in space in the form of E/M radiation. But gravity is equivalent to only a single wave that extends to infinity. So there is obviously nowhere to store the energy equivalent of Pioneer's momentum loss due to its motion relative to the mass of the universe. Momentum is by no means immediately conserved, but it is conserved in time. The word "conserved" means it has the same value AT ALL TIMES. Pioneer's velocity will continue to slow and that will cause it to be drawn in the direction of the focal point of its trajectory path radius, and the Sun. Its momentum is not (immediately) conserved, but it isn't lost forever. When its fall rate in the direction of the Sun and focal point is equal to the slowing rate applied by the universe in its direction of motion, all energy would be accounted for. If Pioneer was in a circular orbit around the Sun it would eventually arrive at a stable orbit radius, where it would be orbiting faster than your maths would suggest. The fact that the Pioneer anomaly exists demands that the question be resolved, one way or another, and a dedicated mission seems to be the only way to do that. Such a mission can tell us **much** about the universe, and is absolutely vital to the progress of physics. Afterall, truth is the ultimate goal, whatever the cost. So why waste time and money chasing rainbows if that experiment has the potential to turn physics upside down? It needs to be resolved before we go searching for dark matter, surely? Many people would like to see a mission perhaps as an adjunct to an existing plan, but spending money to chase a gas leak or whatever when major plans are being postponed or cancelled to fund Bush's publicity stunts is unjustifiable. Gas leaks or not, until the Pioneer anomaly has been properly resolved, there is no point whatever searching for the pot of dark matter at the end of the rainbow. Which is what it all boils down to in the end, isn't it? Dark matter does not explain the Pioneer anomaly, No, but the Pioneer anomaly explains why your search for dark matter is futile. It's essential that some effort be put in to prove that the anomaly is in fact nothing more than a glitch in the system. Until that is done, the search for dark matter is a waste of time. If the Pioneer anomaly is real, then so is the zero origin universe. and your idea doesn't explain either that or galactic rotation curves. That's just hand waving George. If the anisotropy exists, then it explains those things, and much more. However, you skills in maths are a long way short of being able to manipulate the equations to the point where you can follow the derivations. Either you start learning stuff like this or you will be stuck with taking my word for it (or that of others). It is basic arithmetic that you should have learnt at least in your first years of senior school so I don't know how you could have missed out: It has been a long time, but I know what I'm doing even if you don't. You'll see the light eventually. ----- Max Keon |
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![]() "Max Keon" wrote in message u... "George Dishman" wrote in message ... "Max Keon" wrote in message u... George Dishman wrote: Max Keon wrote: I've updated the web page accordingly. http://www.optusnet.com.au/~maxkeon/pionomor.html You still have the incorrect equations show, they should be removed. "According to the conventional method of identifying gravity force direction, and the conventional method of identifying velocity direction relative to a gravity source, just the one equation is all that's required. But what it attempts to describe is not as clear. ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2)" To anyone familiar with maths at high school level or beyond, your versions are both incorrect and very confusing. The Lorentz equations include ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 and it is very easy to misread your version as that, I did for some time before noticing what you were really saying. By far the clearest way is to write this way: a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) Well why didn't Newton do that? He didn't have your (1+v/c) term because it doesn't exist. But you said his equations included ((c^2+v^2)/c^2)^.5 I said Lorentz's equations included the term, not Newton's. The Lorentz transform are a completely different thing. Other than that, we now take calculus for granted as something we all learnt at school while he had to invent it, so in explaining the physics he had to write in a much more detailed way. I can write "a" above and you know I mean acceleration which is the second derivative. And why do you think that a = (1 + v/c) * (-G*M/r^2) + (G*M/r^2) is not as confusing as a = ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*(-G*M/r^2)+(G*M/r^2) It would be, why have you added an extra term? The total acceleration in your theory is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (1 + v/c) of which the Newtonian part is a = (-G*M/r^2) and the anisotropy is a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) Add the two together to get the total. ------ -- The equation representing an upward moving mass relative to a gravity source is ((c+v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2), while ((c-v)^2/c^2)^.5*G*M/r^2-(G*M/r^2) represents a downward moving mass. Even matter in a fixed position relative to a gravity source is traveling outward through dimension because dimension is traveling inward through it, hence the action of gravity. -- It's obvious that velocity is added to or subtracted from the speed of light. And that should be obvious to anyone at all. Sure, but if you add a positive number or subtract a negative number, the result has the same sign. Your equations may look pretty to you but they give the wrong answer. You seem to be quite adamant that you can't understand my meaning unless velocity to and from a gravity source is signed differently. No, I understand your equation perfectly but it tells me the acceleration is in the opposite direction from what you say in words. If I use the single equation, it's very confusing when applied for the universe generated anisotropy. The two equations are simultaneously active, as a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) and a = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c). v is of course negative in one of them, but I'm not permitted to show which one. Using just the one equation, v is both positive and negative and thus cancels to become zero. Suppose 'A' and 'B' are two galaxies and 'p' is Pioneer: A p B -- Pioneer is moving from left to right. The distance from A in increasing so the derivative (which is the 'v' in your equation) is positive. The extra acceleration from A is: a_A = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) which is negative and points _towards_ A or from right to left. The distance from B in decreasing so the derivative (which is the 'v' in your equation this time) is negative. The extra acceleration from A is: a_A = (-G*M/r^2) * (v/c) which is positive and points _away_from_ B or again from right to left. Using my single version, the effects add to produce a larger effect. With your two equations, you would swap the sign on one of the results and the contributions would cancel. Three cheers for mathematics, the universe is once again saved. You can call them one equation if you like, but they are no such thing. You need to do some serious remedial work on your maths. ------ snip stuff on vectors, it is too advanced at the moment Your vectors would need to include instantaneous conservation of momentum at a distance. And that is obviously wrong. Vectors are a branch of maths, just a tool you will need to know and be able to use if you are ever to do any physics. The gravitational effect on the Sun does that even though the craft is more than ten light hours away. If you abandon GR for Newton then you have what he called "instantaneous action at a distance" and whether the distance is ten light hours or ten light years makes no difference. Your equation is based on -GM/r^2 which applies instantaneously, there is no delay term in the equation. That has always been a totally absurd statement. Of course there's no delay term built into the equation. Why should there be? Nature provides the delay, not mathematics. Don't be stupid Max, you know that in order to work, the maths must be a model of nature. If nature has a delay, that must be reflected in the maths. Then why isn't it? The delay obviously exists in nature. The delay does not exist in nature. That statement implies that math dictates how nature must behave. No, it says the maths must be written to reflect nature. ???? Maths is a tool we use to _model_ the way the universe works. If the maths is to be useful, it must be an accurate model. You can't simply gesture hypnotically and brush the obvious truth aside, that a time delay in the transfer of momentum in the physical world is very clearly a part of nature. But this has nothing whatever to do with Newton anyway. The zero origin universe has its own very specific rules, which most certainly don't include instantaneous action at a distance. Light speed is the absolute limit, **for a very good reason**. Such a time delay is certainly expected in that universe. Then change your maths to show that delay. The universe generated gravity anisotropy depends on there being a delay _in nature_. The maths assumes that the delay exists. There is no delay and the maths you have written so far correctly assumes there is none. We have been writing equations like this a = G * M / r^2 That's just an example, I've left out the anisotropy bit just to keep it short. The point is that G and M are constants but the acceleration and radial distance vary with time. What we have been writing is a shortcut, and both a and r should be shown as functions of time like this: a(t) = G * M / r(t)^2 If you want to add a delay, then you must change it to be something like this: a(t-r/c) = G * M / r(t)^2 which says the acceleration at some time in the future depends on the value of the radius now, the time being the current radius divided by the speed of light. Of course you need to decide whether it is the radius now or the radius at the future time or maybe a combination of both that determines the acceleration. You assume the existence of dark matter because it ties in with the maths. No, I assume the existence of dark matter in galaxies because it is needed to fit the same model that correctly models other observed gravitaional effects. The maths is nothing more than a tool used to perform the comparison of observations. I assume the existence of a delay in action at a distance because the maths requires it. It's also the only logical conclusion, and is a direct prediction as well. Your maths did not requre it. See above for a hint on the change you need to make to the math to model a delay. What you will find is something Newton knew, that it will produce aberration of the gravitational force and again cause the planets to spiral into the Sun. He didn't like the instantaneous nature of forces but he knew he had no choice if his maths was to work. I think he should have put more thought into the physical side of the problem instead of letting the maths confuse him. This is a binary star pair. 0 are their instantaneous positions, while + is where each appears to be. They will spiral away from each other, losing momentum, and their orbit velocities will slow until they reach a stable orbit radius. The only consequence is that they would be orbiting a little slower than the maths would predict. _But that couldn't be noticed because the masses of the stars are determined by orbit velocity_. Why do you think they would continue to lose momentum and spiral together? Because the same diagram applies on the next orbit and the one after that. There is no stable configuration for them to reach. + 0- -0 + If the next scenario was possible, the stars would gain additional momentum as they are driven inward, and would thus continuously spiral away from each other. Indeed but this never happens since changing the speed moves the plus sign to the other side. + 0- -0 + Is that how you see it? Energy can be almost immediately removed from interacting charges and stored in space in the form of E/M radiation. But gravity is equivalent to only a single wave that extends to infinity. So there is obviously nowhere to store the energy equivalent of Pioneer's momentum loss due to its motion relative to the mass of the universe. Momentum is by no means immediately conserved, but it is conserved in time. The word "conserved" means it has the same value AT ALL TIMES. Pioneer's velocity will continue to slow and that will cause it to be drawn in the direction of the focal point of its trajectory path radius, and the Sun. Its momentum is not (immediately) conserved, but it isn't lost forever. That doesn't matter, as you admit the momentum is not conserved unless you postulate that the missing momentum is somehow stored in the vacuum somehow to be returned later. When its fall rate in the direction of the Sun and focal point is equal to the slowing rate applied by the universe in its direction of motion, all energy would be accounted for. If Pioneer was in a circular orbit around the Sun it would eventually arrive at a stable orbit radius, where it would be orbiting faster than your maths would suggest. No, your maths is broken, there is no stable orbit. Dark matter does not explain the Pioneer anomaly, No, but the Pioneer anomaly explains why your search for dark matter is futile. It's essential that some effort be put in to prove that the anomaly is in fact nothing more than a glitch in the system. Until that is done, the search for dark matter is a waste of time. If the Pioneer anomaly is real, then so is the zero origin universe. Sorry, Max, that's simply not true. You need to do a lot of remedial revision of basic maths before you try to work this out. If the Pioneer anomaly was due to your anisotropy caused by the mass of the rest of the universe, then Mercury would spiral into the Sun in a million years. This diagram shows what your theory predicts: http://www.georgedishman.f2s.com/max/Mercury.png and your idea doesn't explain either that or galactic rotation curves. That's just hand waving George. If the anisotropy exists, then it explains those things, and much more. No it doesn't, it does not affect the velocity curves at all since the acceleration is so slow that the speed and radius are in equilibrium at all times, and it is not hand-waving either, I have done the maths and showed you that even for Mercury the effect is many orders of magnitude too small to be detected. However, you skills in maths are a long way short of being able to manipulate the equations to the point where you can follow the derivations. Either you start learning stuff like this or you will be stuck with taking my word for it (or that of others). It is basic arithmetic that you should have learnt at least in your first years of senior school so I don't know how you could have missed out: It has been a long time, but I know what I'm doing even if you don't. You'll see the light eventually. I know exactly what you are trying to do but you are making serious mistakes in the maths and getting only imaginary numbers that your theory doesn't actually predict. George |
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