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On Tuesday, January 30, 2018 at 12:24:58 PM UTC-7, Chris L Peterson wrote:
On Tue, 30 Jan 2018 10:49:14 -0800 (PST), Quadibloc wrote: But yet the society at the time authorized the practice with its laws. Of course. Because these people had fewer rights, which was reflected by the law. No, the law *caused* them to have fewer legal rights. It did not affect their human rights, it just meant the government was responsible for violating their human rights in so doing. Thus, they had equal rights, which the law criminally failed to reflect. John Savard |
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