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In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the
formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? -- Clear skies, Michael Covington -- www.covingtoninnovations.com Author, Astrophotography for the Amateur and (new) How to Use a Computerized Telescope |
#2
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Michael,
This could be a couple things. Naglers have their field stop internal to the eyepiece, so there could be some magnification. This isn't true for Plossls, so if the error is there across the product line, it's more likely, they use whatever gives the larger number because that's what their competitors do. Very common with 32mm 50* eyepieces. But your Math is right from what I can tell. Optics frequently uses approximations, since sin(angle) = tan (angle) = angle in radians for small angles. That's one reason for second and third order aberrations off-axis. Have fun, Frank "Michael A. Covington" wrote in message ... In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? -- Clear skies, Michael Covington -- www.covingtoninnovations.com Author, Astrophotography for the Amateur and (new) How to Use a Computerized Telescope |
#3
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Michael,
This could be a couple things. Naglers have their field stop internal to the eyepiece, so there could be some magnification. This isn't true for Plossls, so if the error is there across the product line, it's more likely, they use whatever gives the larger number because that's what their competitors do. Very common with 32mm 50* eyepieces. But your Math is right from what I can tell. Optics frequently uses approximations, since sin(angle) = tan (angle) = angle in radians for small angles. That's one reason for second and third order aberrations off-axis. Have fun, Frank "Michael A. Covington" wrote in message ... In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? -- Clear skies, Michael Covington -- www.covingtoninnovations.com Author, Astrophotography for the Amateur and (new) How to Use a Computerized Telescope |
#4
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![]() function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? Michael: This topic has been frequently discussed here and initially I presented a formula similar to yours. However many learned folks such as David Knisely, Brian Tung responded and pointed out that my formula did not agree with the actual measured numbers. I think that because of different eyepiece designs, there is no formula that is exact but that the simple formula on the TeleVue page is the one that works the best: Field Size (°) = (eyepiece field stop diameter / telescope focal length) x 57.3 °. The basic assumption seems to be that the field of view is a spherical surface rather than a flat surface as I had assumed. However when I think about AFOV, TFOV and how they are measured, it seems clear to me that the spherical approach is the best one. Apparent FOV is pretty nebulous concept because it cannot be measured directly. It is normally measured by timing the drift of a star across the FOV and using the magnification to compute the AFOV. Now when I consider the path that the star takes as moves from the field stop on one side of the focal plane to the other, its rate should be constant on a spherical surface rather than a flat plane because the rotation of that star is just a lever arm of the rotation of the earth. The formulas used to compute magnification, field of view, apparent field of view etc are all first order, and based on this simple curved surface. The reality of course is the the actual equations are probably far more complicated and dependent upon particulars for each eyepiece and even each telescope-eyepiece combination. But one needs to be consistent, trying to make a second order correction such as you and I did means that all the relationships need to have second order corrections. And those other relationships are still first order. I am sure soon David, Brian and all the rest will respond, explain things more clearly, point out my further logical mistakes, but for now, this ought to get things started. Happy Holidays to All... jon |
#5
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![]() function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? Michael: This topic has been frequently discussed here and initially I presented a formula similar to yours. However many learned folks such as David Knisely, Brian Tung responded and pointed out that my formula did not agree with the actual measured numbers. I think that because of different eyepiece designs, there is no formula that is exact but that the simple formula on the TeleVue page is the one that works the best: Field Size (°) = (eyepiece field stop diameter / telescope focal length) x 57.3 °. The basic assumption seems to be that the field of view is a spherical surface rather than a flat surface as I had assumed. However when I think about AFOV, TFOV and how they are measured, it seems clear to me that the spherical approach is the best one. Apparent FOV is pretty nebulous concept because it cannot be measured directly. It is normally measured by timing the drift of a star across the FOV and using the magnification to compute the AFOV. Now when I consider the path that the star takes as moves from the field stop on one side of the focal plane to the other, its rate should be constant on a spherical surface rather than a flat plane because the rotation of that star is just a lever arm of the rotation of the earth. The formulas used to compute magnification, field of view, apparent field of view etc are all first order, and based on this simple curved surface. The reality of course is the the actual equations are probably far more complicated and dependent upon particulars for each eyepiece and even each telescope-eyepiece combination. But one needs to be consistent, trying to make a second order correction such as you and I did means that all the relationships need to have second order corrections. And those other relationships are still first order. I am sure soon David, Brian and all the rest will respond, explain things more clearly, point out my further logical mistakes, but for now, this ought to get things started. Happy Holidays to All... jon |
#6
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On Sat, 20 Dec 2003 17:24:15 GMT, Frank Bov
wrote: In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? Try this simple formula to calculate the theoretical field stop of an eyepiece: FS = (AFOV * FL)/57.3 Lawrence Sayre |
#7
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On Sat, 20 Dec 2003 17:24:15 GMT, Frank Bov
wrote: In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Does an optics book discuss this somewhere? Try this simple formula to calculate the theoretical field stop of an eyepiece: FS = (AFOV * FL)/57.3 Lawrence Sayre |
#8
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Michael A. Covington wrote:
In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Well, to be honest, the only way to determine the true size of an eyepiece's field stop is to physically measure it. However, for those with internal field stops (Naglers, Ultrawides, ect.), the field stop isn't exactly accessable (although I did take apart my Meade 14mm Ultrawide: 20.3mm field stop). I can come up with an "equivalent" field stop via the exact true field measurement in the scope and working backwards with the field stop formula for true field of view: TFOV = (180/Pi)*EFSD/Fl, where EFSD is the eyepiece field stop diameter and Fl is the telescope focal length. For the field stops in my eyepieces I can actually measure, the field stop formula yeilds true fields which are within one or two percent of the actual measured fields, so it works pretty well. I have used this to "approximate" the equivalent field stop for one bizarre eyepiece I have; the 4.9-7.9mm Speers-Waler. At its longest focal length, the equivalent field stop is about 11.3mm, and at its shortest focal length, its about 7.7mm. Clear skies to you. -- David W. Knisely Prairie Astronomy Club: http://www.prairieastronomyclub.org Hyde Memorial Observatory: http://www.hydeobservatory.info/ ********************************************** * Attend the 11th Annual NEBRASKA STAR PARTY * * July 18-23, 2004, Merritt Reservoir * * http://www.NebraskaStarParty.org * ********************************************** |
#9
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Michael A. Covington wrote:
In calculating the field stop diameter of an eyepiece, I've always used the formula: Field stop = focal length * 2 * tan(apparent field /2) which I *thought* was right. However, with Tele Vue eyepieces, I only get the published figures if I use the sine function rather than the tangent function. What's going on? Do all reasonably-wide-field eyepieces have distortion? Well, to be honest, the only way to determine the true size of an eyepiece's field stop is to physically measure it. However, for those with internal field stops (Naglers, Ultrawides, ect.), the field stop isn't exactly accessable (although I did take apart my Meade 14mm Ultrawide: 20.3mm field stop). I can come up with an "equivalent" field stop via the exact true field measurement in the scope and working backwards with the field stop formula for true field of view: TFOV = (180/Pi)*EFSD/Fl, where EFSD is the eyepiece field stop diameter and Fl is the telescope focal length. For the field stops in my eyepieces I can actually measure, the field stop formula yeilds true fields which are within one or two percent of the actual measured fields, so it works pretty well. I have used this to "approximate" the equivalent field stop for one bizarre eyepiece I have; the 4.9-7.9mm Speers-Waler. At its longest focal length, the equivalent field stop is about 11.3mm, and at its shortest focal length, its about 7.7mm. Clear skies to you. -- David W. Knisely Prairie Astronomy Club: http://www.prairieastronomyclub.org Hyde Memorial Observatory: http://www.hydeobservatory.info/ ********************************************** * Attend the 11th Annual NEBRASKA STAR PARTY * * July 18-23, 2004, Merritt Reservoir * * http://www.NebraskaStarParty.org * ********************************************** |
#10
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![]() "David Knisely" wrote Well, to be honest, the only way to determine the true size of an eyepiece's field stop is to physically measure it. Along this same line, how does one know if the eyepiece's stated focal length is accurate? You, David, extensively answered this question once before, but I am still surprised that a TeleVue, with their fancy charts and graphs, would state a focal length so inaccurately (see below). The only aspect of the eyepiece/telescope combination I *can* measure is the true field of view. If the stated field stop/apparent field of view of a TeleVue eyepiece is accurate, then I can work backwards to find the true focal length...which so far is somewhat inaccurately stated by TeleVue. For example, if my 4.8mm Nagler is really 4.8mm, then the apparent field of view is 71.55 degrees, not 82. (I made several 'drift' timings of a star at the equator.) Since the afov sure *looks* a lot wider than 71.55, I interpret the focal length as being shorter than 4.8mm. Howard Lester -----= Posted via Newsfeeds.Com, Uncensored Usenet News =----- http://www.newsfeeds.com - The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World! -----== Over 100,000 Newsgroups - 19 Different Servers! =----- |
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