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Old October 6th 05, 01:48 AM
N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)
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Dear George Dishman:

"George Dishman" wrote in message
...

"N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)" N: dlzc1 D:cox
wrote in message news:hjQ0f.2777$lq6.2675@fed1read01...
Dear Jan Pantelje:

(sorry to talk over your shoulder George)


No problem David, it's a public group.


It can also be considered rude, that is why the preface.

Why does light appear to redshift when being produced in
a place with higher gravity (curvature)? Doesn't curvature
produce "gravitational time dilation"? Wouldn't a younger,
more dense Universe have higher curvature than at a later
time? c doesn't have to change to get redshift.


If V(x,y,z,t) is the gravitational potential at some
event, then it is obvious that partial dV/dx is zero
everywhere for a homogenous, isotropic universe (over
large scales) and similarly for y and z, but what can
you say about partial dV/dt in say an FRW universe?


I would guess.. the spatial relations simply require that the
redshift (if any) be specular. And dV/dt should be non-zero
also, but Bjoern is the only FRW expert I have come across.

Does the question mean anything anyway or is it "not
even wrong"?


I think it is redshift, but let's see if Bjoern is lurking...

David A. Smith