On Thu, 1 Feb 2018 11:56:28 -0800 (PST), Quadibloc
wrote:

On Tuesday, January 30, 2018 at 12:24:58 PM UTC-7, Chris L Peterson wrote:
On Tue, 30 Jan 2018 10:49:14 -0800 (PST), Quadibloc
wrote:

But yet the society at the time authorized the practice with its
laws.

Of course. Because these people had fewer rights, which was reflected
by the law.

No, the law *caused* them to have fewer legal rights.

Agreed. Because rights are ultimately defined by laws.

It did not
affect their human rights...

It defined their human rights.

Thus, they had equal rights, which the law criminally failed to
reflect.

In plenty of societies people don't have equal rights. Indeed, that's
the historical norm. What we now have may turn out to be nothing but
an aberration.