Fallacy of Relativistic Doppler Effect
On Mar 23, 11:29 am, Eric Gisse wrote:
On Mar 23, 11:15 am, Koobee Wublee wrote:
It sounds like (f = 1 / dt). So, you deny that is the case and
vigorously prove it to be the case. What a contradiction! shrug
Looks like you don't know the difference between 'time' and 'period'.
Hmmm... Time is period, and period is time. When it is said “a
period of time”, it is literarily wrong because of redundancy. What
other ignorancy is expected from a college dropout anyway?
In reality, Doppler effect is very simple. It is just
** frequency = speed / wavelength
Observed frequency, observed speed, and observed wavelength, of
course. shrug
And SR offers no correct predictions. shrug
Really?
Yes, really. shrug
No correct predictions at all?
That is correct. shrug
Not even one?
Yes, again. The college dropout is indeed really stupid. shrug
Well I guess if some idiot on USENET said it, it must be true.
The college dropout is sucking on his thumb mumbling incoherent chants
again. shrug
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